Vet 2563 all Station assessments

Tiletamine is what type of anesthetic agent?

A) Anticholinergic

B) Opioid

C) Dissociative anesthetic

D) Alpha Adrenoceptor Agonist

C

What is used to reconstitute tiletamine/zolazepam?

A) 5 ml LRS

B) 5 ml Sterile saline

C) 5 ml sterile water

D) Does not need reconstituted, comes ready to use

C

Atropine is administered with tiletamine/zolazepam for what affect?

A) Increase heart rate

B) Decrease salivation

C) Increase respirations

D) Increase blood pressure

B

Concentration of tiletamine/zolazepam per ml once reconstituted is?

A) 10mg/ml

B) 25 mg/ml

C) 50 mg/ml

D) 100 mg/ml

D

What is the oxygen flow range for a 47 lb dog under anesthesia?

A) 470 ml/min to 940 ml/min

B) 500 ml/min to 1000 ml/min

C) 3 L/min

D) 4.7 L/min to 9.4 L/min

B

Zolazepam is what type of drug?

A) Benzodiazepine

B) Dissociative Anesthetic

C) Anticholinergic

D) Opioid

A

Tiletamine/zolazepam is given by what route?

A) Intravenous

B) Intramuscular

C) Subcutaneous

D) Inhalant gas

B

What is the actual milligram and milliliter premedication dose of acepromazine for a 47 lb dog? (ace and atropine will be combined in same syringe)

A) 3 mg and 0.3 ml

B) 4.7 mg and 0.47 ml

C) 5 mg and 0.5 ml

D) 0.5 mg and 0.05 ml

A

Injection with Tiletamine/Zolazepam causes which of the following to occur?

A) Absence of palpebral reflex

B) Absence of swallowing/gag reflex

C) Absence of salivation

D) Increased heart rate

D

Recovery from general anesthesia begins when?

A) Oxygen flow rate is a 0 ml/minute and inhalant gas is at 0%

B) Oxygen flow rate is at 3 L/min and inhalant gas is at 0%

C) Animal is extubated

D) Animal is placed in recovery cage

B

Ingredients in the medication discussed in the video are?

A) Zolazepam and Tiletamine

B) Zolazepam and Ketamine

C) Midazolam and Tiletamine

D) Diazepam and Ketamine

A

What is the actual milligram and milliliter premedication dose of atropine for a 47 lb dog? (ace and atropine will be combined in the same syringe)

A) 0.47 mg and 0.87 ml

B) 0.4698 mg and 0.87 ml

C) 0.486 mg and 0.9 ml

D) 0.54 mg and 1 ml

C

Maintenance anesthesia begins when for a 47 lb dog when?

A) Oxygen flow rate is at 3L/min and Isoflorane is at 3%

B) Animal loses palpebral reflex

C) Oxygen flow rate is decreased to 1 liter/min and Isoflorane is decreased to 2%

D) Decreaseing oxygen flow rate and isoflorane plus loss of palpebral reflex

D

What is the reservoir bag size for a 47 lb dog?

A) 1 Liter

B) 1.5 Liter

C) 2 Liter

D) 3 Liter

C

What is the dosage rate of tiletamine/zolazepam used at CSCC?

A) 0.1 mg/lb

B) 0.01 mg/lb

C) 2 mg/lb IV

D) 3-6 mg/lb

D

Which digits should be visible from the bandage to assess for swelling and hypothermia?

A) First and second

B) second and third

C) third and fourth

D) fourth and fifth

C

Purple top blood collection tubes have what in them and are used for what purpose?

A) Sodium citrate and chemistry profiles

B) EDTA and CBC

C) Heparin and CBC

D) EDTA for blood glucose determinations

B

To minimize damage to the bandage between bandage changes, which of the following should the client do?

A) Place a plastic bag over bandage before the animal goes outside

B) Allow the animal full level of activity as long as the bandage remains in place

C) Check the bandage once a day for any signs of swelling and infection

D) Allow the animal to chew and lick the bandage as long as it remains in place

A

Which of the following vacutainer tubes does not need to be inverted (mixed) after collection of a blood sample?

A) Lavender top

B) Green top

C) Red top

D) Blue top

C

This dog is in which recumbancy to have which vein drawn?

A) Left lateral, left lateral sapheous

B) Left lateral, right lateral saphenous

C) Right lateral, right lateral saphenous

D) Right lateral, left lateral saphenous

D

DTA plasma cannot be used for diagnostic testing because it forms a complex with what?

A) Magnesium

B) Phosphorus

C) Calcium

D) Potassium

C

This cat is in which recumbancy to have which vein drawn?

A) Left lateral, left medial saphenous

B) Right lateral, left medial saphenous

C) Left lateral, right medial saphenous

D) Right lateral, right medial saphenous

D

For hematology tests, clots in EDTA blood are?

A) Acceptable if they are microscopic

B) Acceptable if they are detected on a wooden stick

C) Acceptable if they are run through an automatic analyzer

D) Never acceptable

D

Icteric serum is which of the following colors?

A) Yellow

B) Red

C) Brown

D) Milky

A

This cat is in which recumbancy for which vein to be drawn?

A) Sternal recumbancy, right jugular

B) Dorsal recumbancy, right jugular

C) Sternal recumbancy, left jugular

D) Dorsal recumbancy, left jugular

C

Most bandage issues occur when?

A) within 24-48 hours after being placed

B) within 3-5 days of being placed

C) within 7 days of being placed

D) within two weeks of being placed

A

Blue topped blood collection tubes have what in them and are used for what purpose?

A) Heparin for blood glucose

B) Serum separator for chemistry profiles

C) EDTA for complete blood count

D) Sodium citrate for blood coagulation determination

D

With a bandage limb, leaving the toes exposed allows for?

A) Monitoring for swelling under the bandage

B) Is a poorly placed bandage

C) Comparison with toes on bandaged limb with toes on opposite limb

D) Allows for monitoring of swelling and toe comparison

D

What is the difference between a red top vacutainer and one with a mottled red and gray top?

A) One contains diatomaceous earth and the other does not

B) One contains serum separator and the other does not

C) One contains silicone and the other does not

D) One contains anticoagulant and the other does not

B

We evaluate bandages for what issues

A) Smell (Infection)

B) Swell

C) Circulation

D) Innervation

E) All of the above

E

1. Which type of scissors is used to cut drape material?

a. Metzenbaum

b. Bandage

c. Operating

d. Mayo

c

2. Which instrument has no gripping teeth and is a self-retaining forceps used for delicate tissue?

a. Babcock

b. Allis

c. Ferguson

d. Roeder

a

3. Which is the most delicate towel clamps with a squeeze handle?

a. Backhaus

b. Roeder

c. Lorna

d. Jones

d

4. The forceps with longitudinal grooves and distal transverse grooves are called:

a. Rochester- Carmalt

b. Rochester- Pean

c. Rochester-Oschsner

d. Rochester- Halsted

a

5. Which is the surgical instrument designed to hold metal?

a. Doyen forceps

b. Halsted mosquito forceps

c. Mayo needle holder

d. Ferguson angiotribe

c

6. Which instrument can be used to cut through bone?

a. Wire cutting scissors

b. Kern forceps

c. Verbrugge

d. Osteotome

d

7. The type of needle that would most likely be used when suturing a bladder is:

a. Cutting

b. Triangular

c. Taper

d. Side cutting

c

8. An example of nonsynthetic absorbable suture material is:

a. Silk

b. Surgical gut

c. Cotton

d. linen

b

9. An example of nonabsorbable synthetic suture is:

a. Polyglycolic

b. Polyglactin

c. Vicryl

d. Vetafil

d

10. Surgical preparation/clipping is performed with a no. ? blade.

a. 10

b. 15

c. 25

d. 40

d

11. Prior to a canine castration, the prepuce may be flushed with ? .

a. Chlorhexidine

b. Povidone-iodine

c. Roccal

d. Isopropyl alcohol

a

12. The appropriate pH for detergent used to clean instruments is ? .

a. 3 to 5

b. 7.5 to 8

c. 9 to 11

d. 13 to 15

c

13. Which statement is false regarding indicator tape?

a. Lines on the tape will change color to black

b. Indicator tape on the pack indicates that the inside of the pack has been exposed to steam

c. Indicator tape on the pack indicates that the outside of the pack has been exposed to steam

d. Color change doe not indicate that the appropriate temperature has been met and maintained for the appropriate time

b

14. The sterile surgical assistant can perform all of the following tasks except:

a. Organize the surgical table and instruments

b. Provide retraction of muscles and tissues

c. Open packs

d. Cut suture material

c

15. During which type of surgery might rongeurs be used?

a. Onychectomy

b. Celiotomy

c. Orthopedic

d. Thoracotomy

c

16. Which of the following handheld retractors has three prongs at one end?

a. Army Navy

b. Gelpi

c. Meyerding

d. Senn

d

17. A patient undergoing a gastrotomy is placed in ? position. The patient is prepared for surgery by using a no. 40 clipper and removing the hair from the ? . Following the clipping of the hair, the surgical site is disinfected with ? solutions.

a. Ventral, umbilicus to pubis, chlorhexidine alternating with an alcohol scrub and a final povidone-iodine pain

b. Dorsal, xiphoid process to pubis, chlorhexidine surgical scrub alternating with an isopropyl alchohol scrub and a final prep of 10% povidone-iodine pain solution.

c. Dorsal, last rib to pubis, surgical scrub soap, 5% alcohol, iodine soap

d. Ventral, umbilicus to pubis, alchohol and povidone paint

b

18. Which of the following small animal scalpel blades is used to sever ligaments?

a. No. 10

b. No. 11

c. No. 12

d. No. 15

b

19. All of the following statements regarding surgical milk are true, except it:

a. Is an excellent lubricant

b. Inhibits rust

c. Should be used on all instruments cleaned by ultrasound

d. Must be rinsed off

d

20. Which method of gloving minimizes the chance of contamination?

a. Alternating

b. Open

c. Closed

d. Semi-closed

c

Which type of scissor is used to cut a fenestration in sterile drape material?

Operating

Which instrument has no gripping teeth and is a self-retaining forceps used for delicate tissues?

Babcock

Which is the most delicate towel clamps with a squeeze handle?

Jones

The forceps with longitudinal grooves and distal transverse grooves are called

Rochester-Carmalt

Which is the surgical instrument designed to hold metal?

Mayo-Hegar Needle Holder

Which instrument can be used to cut through bone?

Osteotome

The type of needle that would most likely be used when suturing a bladder is

taper

An example of nonsynthetic absorbable suture material is

surgical gut

An example of nonabsorbable synthetic suture is

Vetafil

Surgical preparation/clipping is performed with a no. ____ blade.

40

Before a canine castration, the prepuce may be flushed with

chlorhexidine

The appropriate pH for detergent used to clean instruments is

9.2-11

Autoclave indicator tape does all of the following except

indicate that the inside of the pack has been exposed to the appropriate temperature and pressure for the appropriate time

The sterile surgical assistant can perform all of the following tasks except

open packs

During which type of surgery might rongeurs be used?

Orthopedic

Which of the following handheld retractors has three prongs at one end?

Senn

A patient undergoing a gastrostomy is placed in ____ recumbency. The patient is prepared for surgery by using a no. 40 clipper and removing the hair from the ____. After the clipping of hair, the surgical site is disinfected with ____ solutions.

dorsal, xiphoid process to pubis, povidone surgical scrub alternating with an isopropyl alcohol scrubs and a final prep of 10% povidone-iodine paint solution

Which of the following small animal scalpel blades is used to sever ligaments?

No. 11

All of the following are true statements regarding surgical milk, except it

must be rinsed off

Which method of gloving minimizes the change of contamination?

Closed

Assuming 15 psi, the minimum conditions that must be met to ensure that a pack has been adequately sterilized by autoclaving are?

A) 121 C for 15 minutes

B) 131 F for 15 minutes

C) 250 F for 15 minutes

D) Either 121 C or 250 F for 15 minutes

D

Which surgical instrument is designed to hold metal?

A) Doyen forceps

B) Halsted mosquito forceps

C) Mayo Hegar Needle holder

D) Ferguson angiotribe

C

As a surgical assistant asked to drape the patient, one should be wearing?

A) Cap, mask, surgical gown, open gloving technique

B) Cap, mask, surgical gown, closed gloving technique

C) Cap, mask, scrubs, closed gloving technique

D) Cap, mask, scrubs, open gloving technique

B

Once gowned and gloved using aseptic technique, you are considered sterile from?

A) Bottom of neck front to hemline

B) Bottom of neck front to waist, side to side and both arms

C) Above waist front and back

D) Below waist front and back

B

Which of the following hemostatic forceps has striations different from the others?

A) Rochester Pean

B) Rochester Carmalt

C) Crile

D) Halsted mosquitoe

B

An autoclaved double wrapped muslin pack, kept in a closed cabinet, can be safely stored for?

A) 1 week

B) 3 months

C) 7-8 weeks

D) 9 months

C

Autoclave indicator tape does all of the following except?

A) acquire black stripes when exposed to heat

B) indicate that the inside of the pack has been exposed to the appropriate temperature and pressure for the appropriate time

C) indicate the outside of the pack has been exposed to steam

D) allows for identification of the pack

B

When opening a gown pack, nonscrubbed surgical personnel may touch the?

A) Autoclave tape

B) Indicator

C) Towel

D) Gown

A

What type of scissors is used to cut a fenestration in sterile drape material?

A) Metzenbaum

B) Bandage

C) Operating

D) Mayo

C

Which instrument can be used to cut through bone?

A) Wire cutting scissors

B) Kern forceps

C) Verbrugge

D) Osteotome

D

What size scalpel blade fits on a # 3 scalpel handle?

A) No. 10

B) No. 20

C) No. 21

D) No. 30

A

Surgical preparation/clipping is performed with what blade?

A) No. 10

B) No. 15

C) No. 25

D) No. 40

D

All of the following statements regarding surgical milk are true except?

A) is an excellent lubricant

B) inhibits rust

C) should be used on all instruments cleaned by ultrasound

D) must be rinsed off

D

Which instrument has no gripping teeth and is a self retaining forcep used for delicate tissue?

A) Babcock

B) Allis

C) Ferguson

D) Roeder

A

A surgical scrub is performed by all personel who are scrubbing into surgery on a patient. The best reason for the scrub is?

A) To wash your hands

B) To remove dead cells and debris, as well as allow contact time to decrease your bacterial load

C) Scrub your nails very well

D) To help remove any tattoos on your hands

B

1. The normal depth of the gingival sulcus in a cat is:

a. 0.5 to 1 mm

b. 1 to 2 mm

c. 1 to 3 mm

d. 4 to 6 mm

a

dog - 1 to 3mm

2. The most common oral malignant tumor in cats is:

a. Melanoma

b. Osteosarcoma

c. Fibrosarcoma

d. Squamous cell carcinoma

d

cat dog

1. squamous cell 1. melanoma

2. Fibrosarcoma 2. squamous cell

3. Fibrosarcoma

3. The teeth that are radiographed using standard parallel technique are the:

a. Maxillary incisors

b. Mandibular canines

c. Maxillary premolars

d. Mandibular molars

d

mandibular premolar/molar

4. The fourth premolar in the upper left quadrant as

a. 108

b. 204

c. 208

d. 308

c

5. Sickle scalers:

a. Have one sharp side

b. Remove subgingival calculi

c. Remove supragingival calculi

d. Are pulled toward the gum line

c

6. The periodontal ligament connects the:

a. Cementum to the alveolar bone

b. Gingiva to the cementum

c. Cementum to the enamel

d. Dentin to the enamel

a

7. A new theory regarding the cause of resorptive lesions in cats is:

a. Hypervitaminosis D

b. Hyperparathyroidism

c. A low pH diet

d. Calicivirus

a

8. Tooth resorptive lesions that show a normal periodontal ligament space on a dental radiograph are type:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

a

type 1 - radiolucency on the tooth but normal periodontal ligament space

type 2 - some radiolucency and narrowing/loss (ankylosis) of some periodontal ligament space

type 3 - both 1 and 2 on the same tooth

9. The terminal shank of a universal curette should be lined up on the following line on a sharpening guide:

a. 110

b. 90

c. 30

d 0

b

10. Bacterial contamination from a power dental scaler will reach distances of :

a. 4 feet

b. 5 feet

c. 6 feet

d. 8 feet

c

11. The surface of the tooth that faces the cheeks is termed:

a. Lingual

b. Coronal

c. Palatal

d. Buccal

d

12. The upper fourth premolar and first molar teeth are termed:

a. Carnassial teeth

b. Dilacerated

c. Diphyodont

d. Deciduous

a

13. Which power scaler should be avoided in dental scaling?

a. Sonic

b. Rotary

c. Ultrasonic

d. Piezoelectric

b

14. Which of the following organizations has a standardized reference for many of the grading indexes used for the teeth and gingiva?

a. AVDC

b. CVMA

c. AVMA

d. NAVTA

a

American Veterinary Dental College

15. Which image distortion occurs when the x-ray beam is directed too perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth?

a. Elongation

b. Foreshortening

c. Grayish overlay

d. Superimposition of mesial roots

a

Bisecting angle - used for all teeth except mandibular premolar/molar

foreshortening makes tooth appear shorter happens when xray beam is perpendicular to film

Tube shift technique SLOB (same lingual opposite buccal) better visualize structures such as three roots of upper fourth premolar. Lateral view will superimpose mesial roots