BOC HEME-COAG

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Last updated 12:30 AM on 8/11/26
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154 Terms

1
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What are the primary anatomical sites of active adult hematopoiesis?

The red marrow of flat bones: skull, sternum, pelvis, ribs, and vertebrae

2
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During prenatal development, what is the primary site of hematopoiesis between the 2nd and 7th months of gestation?

The liver (with minor contribution from the spleen).

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Name the major growth factor driving the differentiation of the CFU-E pathway into mature erythrocytes.

 Erythropoietin (EPO)

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Name the major growth factor responsible for stimulating megakaryocytopoiesis and platelet production from CFU-MK

Thrombopoietin (TPO)

5
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Place the stages of granulocyte maturation in the correct order starting from the earliest committed precursor.

Myeloblast → Promyelocyte → Myelocyte → Metamyelocyte → Band Neutrophil → Segmented Neutrophil.

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Which cell maturation line arises from the Common Lymphoid Progenitor (CLP)?

Lymphocytes (Natural Killer cells, T cells, and B cells, which further differentiate into plasma cells)

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What is the primary plasma protein responsible for transporting iron in the body?

Transferrin

8
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Name the two main storage forms of iron and specify which one is water-soluble.

  • Ferritin (Major storage form; water-soluble)

  • Hemosiderin (Long-term storage form; water-insoluble)

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What clinical conditions or organ damage can result from excessive iron storage in tissues?

  • Hemosiderosis and Hemochromatosis

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Accumulation of early heme precursors (such as δ-ALA or porphobilinogen) causes what type of clinical symptoms, and what classic condition does it represent?

Neuropsychiatric symptoms; characteristic of Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP)

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Accumulation of later heme precursors (Uroporphyrin, Coproporphyrin, Protoporphyrin) causes what distinct types of clinical symptoms?

Cutaneous symptoms (e.g., extreme photosensitivity, blistering, and facial hair/hypertrichosis).

12
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Use the text's mnemonic path to sequence the intermediate steps of heme synthesis from start to finish.

δ-ALA → Porphobilinogen (PBG) → Uroporphyrinogen → Coproporphyrinogen → Protoporphyrin → Heme

13
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Which specific enzymatic steps or intermediates in the heme synthesis pathway are directly inhibited by lead poisoning?

~ Conversion of δ-aminolevulinic acid (δ-ALA)

~ Conversion of Coproporphyrinogen

~ Incorporation of iron into Protoporphyrin (via ferrochelatase)

14
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What happens to red blood cells (RBCs) and the calculated hematocrit value if a microhematocrit tube contains excess EDTA due to an underfilled sample?

Excess EDTA causes RBC shrinkage due to hypertonicity, leading to a falsely decreased hematocrit reading.

15
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How do inadequate centrifugation time or a failure to properly seal the clay plug affect a manual microhematocrit result?

  • Inadequate centrifugation leads to trapped plasma, causing a falsely increased hematocrit.

  • Failure to seal the clay plug allows RBCs to escape during spinning, causing a falsely decreased hematocrit.

16
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What are the three primary physiological sources of error that cause a falsely elevated total hemoglobin result when using standard spectrophotometric methods (e.g., cyanmethemoglobin)?

  1. Lipemia / Icterus (increases turbidity/sample absorbance)

  2. Extremely high White Blood Cell (WBC) count (causes light scattering)

  3. Resisting hemoglobins (e.g., Hb SS, Hb CC, which fail to lyse easily)

17
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Match the routine hematology anticoagulants to their mechanism of action:

  1. EDTA

  2. Heparin

  1. EDTA: Chelates calcium (Ca++) to prevent coagulation

  2. Heparin: Acts as an anti-thrombin agent

18
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What causes a Left Shift in the Hemoglobin-Oxygen Dissociation curve, and what does it mean for tissue oxygenation?

Causes: Decreased CO₂, increased pH (alkalosis), decreased temperature, decreased 2,3-DPG, or high presence of Hemoglobin F (Hb F).

Meaning: Increased oxygen affinity; hemoglobin won't let go of O₂, leading to decreased tissue oxygen delivery.

19
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What causes a Right Shift in the Hemoglobin-Oxygen Dissociation curve, and what does it mean for tissue oxygenation?

Causes: Increased CO₂, decreased pH (acidosis), increased temperature, or increased 2,3-DPG.

Meaning: Decreased oxygen affinity; hemoglobin releases O₂ more easily, leading to increased tissue oxygen delivery ("Won't Hold Tight").

20
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What state is iron in within Methemoglobin, what color is the blood, and can it transport oxygen?

Iron is oxidized to the ferric state (Fe+++). The blood appears chocolate brown in color, and it cannot bind oxygen

21
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What condition causes elevated Carboxyhemoglobin, and what characteristic color is observed in the patient's blood?

 Carbon monoxide poisoning (or heavy smoking). The blood turns a distinct cherry-red color

22
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What is the predominant hemoglobin type in a normal adult, what are its constituent globin chains, and what is its approximate reference percentage?

Hemoglobin A (Hb A); composed of α₂β₂ chains; comprises approximately 97% of total adult hemoglobin

23
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MCV Equation & Reference Range

Formula: (HCT × 10) / RBC
Range: 80-100 fL

24
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MCH Equation & Reference Range

Formula: (HGB × 10) / RBC
Range: 28-32 pg

25
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MCHC Equation & Reference Range

Formula: (HGB × 100) / HCT
Range: 32-36% (or g/dL)

26
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Causes of MCHC >36% (Artifacts vs Pathology)

  • Cold agglutinins

  • Lipemia

  • Icterus

  • Spherocytosis

27
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Lab Finder for RDW Elevation Significance

Indicates Anisocytosis (variation in RBC size)

28
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Hemocytometer Total Volume Formula

Volume = length × width × depth × # of squares

29
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Standard Neubauer Hemocytometer Chamber Depth

0.1mm

30
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Total Volume Counted for Large WBC Squares (9 Squares)

0.9 mm³

31
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Total Volume Counted for Center Platelet Square (25 Small Squares)

0.1 mm³

32
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What causes a peripheral blood smear to appear too blue under Wright stain?

  • Buffer or stain pH is too basic (alkaline).

  • Prolonged staining time

33
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What causes a peripheral blood smear to appear too red under Wright stain?

  • Buffer or stain pH is too acidic.

  • Prolonged washing time.

34
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What are the four primary components of a Wright (Romanowsky) stain and their functions?

  • Methanol: Fixative

  • Phosphate buffer: Controls pH (ideal is 6.4)

  • Eosin: Acidic dye (stains RBCs and eosinophil granules red/orange)

  • Methylene blue: Basic dye (stains WBC nuclei and platelets blue/purple)

35
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What is the formula to calculate an Absolute WBC Count from a differential percentage?

Relative Value (% as a decimal) × Total WBC Count

36
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A patient has a Total WBC count of 8,000/µL and 70% neutrophils on their differential. What is their absolute neutrophil count?

5,600/µL (0.70 × 8,000)

37
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Which condition is classically associated with hypersegmented neutrophils (>5 lobes)?

Megaloblastic anemia (Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency)

38
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What benign hereditary condition (or acquired state in AML/AIDS) is characterized by hyposegmented neutrophils (dumbbell-shaped or single-lobed nuclei)?

Pelger-Huët anomaly (or Pseudo-Pelger-Huët)

39
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The triad of toxic granulation, cytoplasmic vacuoles, and Döhle bodies in neutrophils indicates what clinical state?

Severe bacterial infection, sepsis, burns, or recent chemotherapy

40
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 What are Döhle bodies composed of structurally?

Aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RNA) located in the cytoplasm of neutrophils

41
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Variant (reactive/atypical) lymphocytes showing increased size and peripheral basophilia are most characteristically seen in which infection?

Infectious Mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr Virus)

42
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Match the following leukocyte elevations to their primary diagnostic associations:

  1. Eosinophilia

  2. Neutrophilia

  3. Lymphocytosis

  4. Monocytosis

  1. Eosinophilia: Allergies and parasitic infections

  2. Neutrophilia: Acute bacterial infections

  3. Lymphocytosis: Viral infections

  4. Monocytosis: Tuberculosis (TB), syphilis, or malignancies

43
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What is the formula used to correct a white blood cell count when ≥ 5 nucleated RBCs (nRBCs) are seen per 100 WBCs?

(Uncorrected WBC × 100) / (100 + # nRBCs per 100 WBCs)

44
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Which abnormal RBC shape is a primary diagnostic marker for Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and hemolytic processes?

Schistocyte (RBC fragment)

45
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Seeing Acanthocytes (spur cells) on a peripheral blood smear is highly characteristic of which genetic lipid disorder?

Abetalipoproteinemia (also seen in severe liver disease)

46
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Macroovalocytes combined with hypersegmented neutrophils point directly to what class of anemia?

Megaloblastic Anemia (Vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency)

47
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Echinocytes (Burr cells) are commonly associated with which metabolic renal condition?

Uremia (or as an alkaline glass artifact)

48
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Which cell shape is a key feature of Hereditary Spherocytosis and ABO Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)?

Spherocyte

49
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Target cells (Codocytes) are most frequently seen in liver disease and which hemoglobin synthesis disorder?

Thalassemia (and other hemoglobinopathies like Hb C)

50
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Teardrop cells (Dacryocytes) are classically associated with what bone marrow phenomenon?

Extramedullary Hematopoiesis (myelofibrosis)

51
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What crystalline shape is characteristic of Hemoglobin C (Hb C) on a stained smear?

Bar-shaped hexagonal crystals

52
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Which hemoglobinopathy produces crystals described as "hand in glove" or "Washington monument" shapes?

Hemoglobin SC disease

53
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Which RBC inclusion is composed of denatured hemoglobin and is NOT visible on a standard Wright-stained smear?

Heinz bodies. They require a supravital stain (like New Methylene Blue or Brilliant Cresyl Blue) for visualization

54
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What is the chemical composition of Howell-Jolly bodies and what clinical condition are they strongly tied to?

Composed of DNA remnants. Most frequently seen post-splenectomy or in severe hemolytic/megaloblastic anemias

55
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What type of anemia is specifically indicated by the presence of Pappenheimer bodies, and how do you confirm them?

Associated with Sideroblastic anemia. Confirm their presence using a Prussian Blue stain(where they are called siderotic granules)

56
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Basophilic stippling consists of aggregates of what substance, and what classic poisoning does coarse stippling indicate?

Composed of RNA (aggregated ribosomes). Coarse stippling is a classic indicator of Lead Poisoning

57
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If an automated hematology analyzer outputs a severely elevated MCHC (>36.0 g/dL), an elevated MCV, and a decreased RBC count, what is the likely culprit?

Cold Agglutinin Disease (autoantibodies causing RBCs to clump together into a fake "giant cell")

58
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What is the correct corrective laboratory action when a sample fails the Rule of Three due to a suspected cold agglutinin?

Warm the sample to 37°C in an incubator for 15-30 minutes and immediately rerun the CBC

59
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What are the two fundamental mathematical equations comprising the hematology Rule of Three?

Hb × 3 = Hct ± 3%

RBC (in millions) × 3 = Hb ± 0.5

60
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Which type of stain is used for manual reticulocyte counts?

Supravital stains (specifically, New Methylene Blue or Brilliant Cresyl Blue).

61
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What effect does a tilted ESR tube have on the final result?

Falsely increases the ESR value

62
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How does excess EDTA anticoagulant affect an Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)?

Falsely decreases it (causes RBC shrinking)

63
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What is the formula for calculating the Corrected Reticulocyte Count?

(% Reticulocytes × Patient Hematocrit) / 45

64
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An RPI value less than 2 (\(<2\)) indicates what clinical status?

Inadequate bone marrow response to anemia

65
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What is the migration order of hemoglobins on Cellulose Acetate (alkaline pH 8.6) from cathode (-) to anode (+)?

C ➔ S ➔ F ➔ A

~ Crawl, Slow, Fast, Accelerate (C is closest to cathode; A is closest to anode)

66
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What hemoglobins migrate together with HbS at an alkaline pH (8.6)?

HbD and HbG

67
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What hemoglobins migrate together with HbC at an alkaline pH (8.6)?

HbE and HbO (as well as A₂)

68
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What is the migration order of hemoglobins on Citrate Agar (acid pH 6.2) from anode (+) to cathode (-)?

C ➔ S ➔ A ➔ F

~ Sad Dog Gets Loved (A₂, CE Of Clubs / Sad Dog / Gets / Loved = F)

69
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What amino acid substitution causes Hemoglobin S?

Valine substituted for Glutamic acid at the 6th position of the beta chain

70
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What amino acid substitution causes Hemoglobin C?

Lysine substituted for Glutamic acid at the 6th position of the beta chain

71
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What screening test is used for HbS, and what does a positive result look like?

Dithionite solubility test (Sickle Dex). A positive result produces turbidity (cloudiness) because HbS precipitates.

72
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What is the normal Myeloid to Erythroid (M:E) ratio in a healthy adult bone marrow?

3:1 to 4:1

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What does a decreased M:E ratio indicate?

Erythroid hyperplasia (or myeloid hypoplasia). Common in hemolytic anemia and erythroleukemia.

74
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What does an increased M:E ratio indicate?

Myeloid hyperplasia. Common in myeloid leukemias and infections.

75
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If a bone marrow collection results in a "Dry Tap," what pathognomonic conditions should you suspect?

Aplastic anemia or Myelofibrosis

76
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Which specimen type is required for the overall evaluation of bone marrow cellularity?

Core Biopsy (rather than the aspirate).

77
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What are the characteristic shapes associated with Homozygous Hemoglobin C crystals?

Bar-shaped, "hand-in-glove," or "Washington Monument" structures

78
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What is the specific amino acid substitution that causes Hemoglobin S (Sickle Cell)?

Valine replaces Glutamic Acid ("Se*y Valine")

79
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A deletion of 3 alpha globin genes (- - / -α) results in what condition and what type of RBC inclusion?

Hemoglobin H (Hb H) disease characterized by Heinz bodies

80
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A deletion of all 4 alpha globin genes results in what fatal condition?

Hydrops fetalis (causing nonviable fetus)

81
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Based on the MCV flowchart, what are the two main categories of structural defects that cause a Low MCV (Microcytic) anemia?

Problems with Heme (e.g., Iron Deficiency, Sideroblastic) and Problems with Globin (e.g., Thalassemias)

82
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How do Cellulose Acetate and Citrate Agar electrophoresis steps differ regarding Hemoglobin C?

On Cellulose Acetate, Hb C migrates closely with A2, E, and O; Citrate Agar separates Hb C from the others to confirm the diagnosis

83
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A patient presents with a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Lab results show decreased Serum Iron, increased TIBC, and decreased Ferritin. What is the diagnosis?

  •  Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA).

    • BOC Pearl: Ferritin is the most sensitive indicator of iron deficiency. If TIBC is decreased and Ferritin is normal to increased, think Anemia of Chronic Inflammation.

84
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Both Vitamin B12 and Folate deficiencies present with macrocytosis, oval macrocytes, and hypersegmented neutrophils. What metabolic panel values specifically confirm a Vitamin B12 deficiency over Folate?

  • Increased Methylmalonic Acid (MMA) AND increased Homocysteine.

    • BOC Pearl: In Folate deficiency, only Homocysteine is elevated; MMA remains normal. Pernicious anemia (a cause of B12 deficiency) will also show positive Anti-IF (Intrinsic Factor) antibodies.

85
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A patient experiences acute hemolysis after taking oxidizing anti-malarial drugs. The peripheral smear reveals Heinz bodies and bite cells. What enzyme deficiency is responsible?

  • G6PD Deficiency (Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase).

    • BOC Pearl: Heinz bodies are composed of precipitated, denatured hemoglobin. They are invisible on a standard Wright's stain and require a supravital stain (like New Methylene Blue or Crystal Violet) to be visualized.

86
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  • Which congenital RBC membrane defect is characterized by an increased MCHC (>36%), an abnormal Spectrin network, and an increased osmotic fragility test?

  • Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS).

    • BOC Pearl: Spherocytes lack central pallor due to membrane loss caused by molecular defects in spectrin or ankyrin.

87
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A patient's CBC reveals a severe normocytic anemia accompanied by marked thrombocytopenia (low platelets). The peripheral blood smear shows prominent schistocytes. What broad classification of conditions does this represent?

  • Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia (MAHA).

    • BOC Pearl: This presentation is a classic hallmark for medical emergency conditions including HUS (Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome), TTP (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura), and DIC(Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation). Schistocytes represent fragmented RBCs broken by fibrin strands in microvessels.

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Pelger-Huët Anomaly characteristics and function

  • Hyposegmented neutrophils.

  • Pince-nez appearance.

  • Normal cell function.

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Chediak-Higashi Syndrome key features

  • Giant abnormal lysosomes.

  • Albinism association.

  • Severe recurrent infections.

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May-Hegglin Anomaly triad

  • Large/giant platelets.

  • Thrombocytopenia (low count).

  • Döhle-like leukocyte inclusions

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Alder-Reilly Anomaly classic association

  • Large azurophilic granules.

  • Mucopolysaccharidoses disease.

  • Mimics toxic granulation.

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Kleihauer-Betke Acid Elution purpose

  • Measures fetal hemoglobin resistance.

  • Detects fetal-maternal hemorrhage.

  • Quantifies RhIg dosage.

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Donath-Landsteiner Test indications

  • Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH).

  • Biphasic IgG autoantibody.

  • Anti-P blood group specificity

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FLAER and Flow Cytometry diagnostic target

  • Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH).

  • Looks for CD55/CD59 deficiency.

  • High sensitivity marker

95
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Polycythemia Vera (Primary Erythrocytosis) vs. Secondary Erythrocytosis EPO levels

  • Primary: Decreased EPO levels.

  • Secondary: Increased EPO levels.

  • Driven by tissue hypoxia.

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What primary cytochemical stain/score differentiates a Leukemoid Reaction from CML?

LAP score (Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase). It is elevated in a leukemoid reaction and decreased in CML

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Which cytogenetic translocation is associated with Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL / FAB M3)?

t(15;17), which involves the retinoic acid receptor alpha-gene

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What classic morphological structures are found in the cytoplasm of blasts in AML/M3?

Auer rods (bundles of them are called faggot cells)

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What is the minimum blast percentage required to diagnose acute leukemia under the WHO classification?

≥ 20% blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow

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What genetic mutation is characteristically positive in Polycythemia Vera (PV)?

JAK2 mutation ("JAK loves Poly Vera")