Prostate Cancer

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69 Terms

1
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What are the major risk factors for prostate cancer?

Advanced age, African American race, family history, BRCA1/2

2
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What hormone stimulates prostate cancer growth?

Testosterone

3
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What is the primary screening test for prostate cancer?

PSA

4
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What PSA level suggests possible prostate cancer?

>4 ng/mL

5
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When should average-risk men discuss prostate screening per ACS?

Age 50

6
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What is the main controversy surrounding PSA screening?

False positives and unnecessary testing

7
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What symptoms suggest bladder outlet obstruction?

Hesitancy, nocturia, incomplete emptying

8
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What confirms prostate cancer diagnosis?

Biopsy with histopathology

9
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What is TRUS used for?

Visualizing prostate and guiding biopsy

10
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What does a higher Gleason score indicate?

More aggressive cancer

11
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What Gleason score and PSA indicate low-risk prostate cancer?

Gleason ≤6 and PSA

12
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What PSA range suggests intermediate risk?

10-20 ng/mL

13
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What PSA level suggests high-risk prostate cancer?

>20 ng/mL

14
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What Gleason scores indicate very-high-risk disease?

9-10

15
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What does N1 indicate in prostate cancer?

Regional lymph node involvement

16
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What does M1 indicate?

Distant metastasis

17
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What are the goals of treatment in localized disease?

Potential cure while minimizing morbidity

18
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What are the goals of treatment in advanced disease?

Symptom control and quality of life

19
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What is active surveillance?

Frequent monitoring without immediate treatment

20
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Which patients are candidates for active surveillance?

Low-risk localized disease

21
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What are the main localized prostate cancer treatments?

Active surveillance, radiation, surgery

22
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What are two types of prostate radiation therapy?

External beam radiation and brachytherapy

23
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What are major radiation toxicities?

Urinary, bowel, and sexual dysfunction

24
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What are major radical prostatectomy toxicities?

Urinary and sexual dysfunction

25
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What treatment is recommended for intermediate-risk localized disease with longer life expectancy?

RP or RT with or without ADT

26
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What treatment is used for high-risk or locally advanced disease?

RP or RT plus ADT

27
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What is the initial treatment strategy for regional disease?

ADT ± abiraterone/prednisone ± RT

28
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What is the foundation of metastatic prostate cancer treatment?

ADT

29
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What is the target castrate testosterone level?

30
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What is castration-sensitive prostate cancer?

Cancer that still responds to androgen deprivation

31
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What is castration-resistant prostate cancer?

Progression despite castrate testosterone

32
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Should ADT continue after castration resistance develops?

Yes

33
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What is PSA persistence?

PSA remains detectable after local treatment

34
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What is PSA recurrence?

PSA rises after treatment

35
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Name three GnRH agonists.

Leuprolide, goserelin, triptorelin

36
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How do GnRH agonists reduce testosterone?

Chronic pituitary receptor downregulation

37
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What major initial complication occurs with GnRH agonists?

Tumor flare

38
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What medication can prevent GnRH agonist tumor flare?

Bicalutamide

39
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Name two GnRH antagonists.

Degarelix and relugolix

40
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How do GnRH antagonists reduce testosterone?

Direct pituitary GnRH receptor blockade

41
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Which GnRH class avoids tumor flare?

Antagonists

42
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Which hormonal class is useful for rapid suppression during spinal cord compression?

GnRH antagonists

43
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What are common adverse effects of ADT?

Hot flashes, gynecomastia, bone loss

44
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What should be monitored during GnRH agonist treatment?

PSA, testosterone, bone mineral density

45
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What is bicalutamide's mechanism?

Androgen receptor blockade

46
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Should first-generation antiandrogens be used alone in untreated prostate cancer?

No

47
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Name three second-generation androgen receptor antagonists.

Enzalutamide, apalutamide, darolutamide

48
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What second-generation antiandrogens are listed for nonmetastatic CRPC?

Apalutamide, darolutamide, enzalutamide

49
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What treatment is added to ADT in metastatic castration-sensitive disease?

Abiraterone/prednisone, apalutamide, enzalutamide, or docetaxel-based intensification

50
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What is abiraterone's mechanism?

CYP17 inhibition

51
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What three toxicities indicate abiraterone-related mineralocorticoid excess?

Hypertension, hypokalemia, edema

52
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Why is prednisone given with abiraterone?

Minimizes mineralocorticoid excess

53
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What labs and vitals are monitored with abiraterone?

LFTs, potassium, glucose, blood pressure

54
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What is the preferred chemotherapy listed for metastatic disease?

Docetaxel plus prednisone

55
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What chemotherapy is used after docetaxel resistance?

Cabazitaxel

56
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What prostate cancer biomarker indicates PARP-directed therapy?

BRCA1/2 mutation

57
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Name three PARP inhibitors from Smith's lecture.

Niraparib, olaparib, rucaparib

58
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What biomarker indicates pembrolizumab?

MSI-H/dMMR

59
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What antigen does sipuleucel-T target?

Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP)

60
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What metastatic complication may be treated with radium-223?

Bone metastases

61
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What bone agents reduce skeletal-related events in metastatic CRPC?

Denosumab and zoledronic acid

62
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What is Prolia's dose for ADT-induced bone loss?

60 mg SQ every 6 months

63
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What is Xgeva's dose for bone metastases?

120 mg SQ every 4 weeks

64
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What are major adverse effects of bone-modifying agents?

Hypocalcemia, osteonecrosis of jaw, muscle pain

65
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What is alendronate's dose for ADT-induced bone loss?

70 mg orally weekly

66
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What is zoledronic acid's listed dose for bone metastases?

4 mg IV every 3-4 weeks

67
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Are finasteride and dutasteride recommended for prostate cancer chemoprevention?

No

68
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Why are 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors not recommended for chemoprevention?

Concern for high-grade prostate cancer

69
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What trials evaluated finasteride and dutasteride for prostate cancer prevention?

PCPT and REDUCE