Esophageal Disorders and Management: Dysphagia, Achalasia, GERD, and Surgical Interventions

0.0(0)
Studied by 3 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/123

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 2:54 AM on 9/29/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai
Chat

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

124 Terms

1
New cards

What is dysphagia?

Difficulty swallowing, which is the universal clinical manifestation across almost all esophageal disorders

2
New cards

What feeling does dysphagia with solid foods typically create for a patient?

A feeling like food is stuck or a feeling of fullness in the chest

3
New cards

What does an X-ray show when used to diagnose esophageal disorders?

Dilation

4
New cards

What are the visual findings when using a barium swallow for esophageal disorders?

Dilation or trapped contrast

5
New cards

What is the purpose of an EGD in diagnosing esophageal disorders?

Direct visualization

6
New cards

What does manometry specifically measure in the esophagus?

Muscle contraction pressures

7
New cards

What smooth muscle relaxants are used in the medical management of achalasia and distal esophageal spasms?

Nitrates and phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors like Viagra

8
New cards

Which medication category is used more specifically for achalasia to relax smooth muscle?

Anticholinergics

9
New cards

What injection type is used as a medical management option for achalasia?

Botox injections

10
New cards

What mechanical procedure is used in the medical management of achalasia alongside Botox?

Pneumatic dilation

11
New cards

What is a laparoscopic Heller myotomy?

A surgical intervention involving an incision in the muscle to release the tight lower esophageal sphincter

12
New cards

What does the acronym POEM stand for in esophageal surgery?

Peroral endoscopic myotomy

13
New cards

What defines a sliding hiatal hernia?

A type of hiatal hernia where a portion of the stomach slides in and out, accounting for 95% of cases

14
New cards

What defines a paraesophageal hiatal hernia or Type 2 hiatal hernia?

A condition where a portion of the stomach pushes through beside the esophagus

15
New cards

What is strangulation in the context of hiatal hernias?

Loss of blood flow resulting in tissue necrosis

16
New cards

What term describes the twisting of the stomach associated with hiatal hernia complications?

Volvulus

17
New cards

What physical property does barium mimic for the gut that requires patient education?

It acts like a 'brick' in the gut

18
New cards

What color are stools expected to be after a barium swallow test until the barium passes?

White or chalky

19
New cards

What instructions must be given to patients regarding fluid intake after a barium swallow?

They must drink plenty of fluids to help clear the barium out

20
New cards

What is the name of the surgical procedure where the top portion of the stomach is wrapped around the lower esophageal sphincter?

Nissen fundoplication

21
New cards

What is the specific name for the top portion of the stomach used in a Nissen fundoplication?

The fundus

22
New cards

What is halitosis in the context of a Zenker's diverticulum?

Bad breath resulting from food sitting in the out-pouching pouch

23
New cards

What sound do patients with a Zenker's diverticulum typically experience after eating or drinking?

Gurgling sounds

24
New cards

What severe pulmonary risk is associated with Zenker's diverticulum?

Aspiration pneumonia

25
New cards

What is the specific medical term for a spontaneous esophageal perforation caused by forceful vomiting and severe straining?

Borhave syndrome

26
New cards

What type of medical emergency is Borhave syndrome?

A surgical emergency

27
New cards

What symptom characterizes the presentation of Borhave syndrome?

Excruciating retrosternal chest pain

28
New cards

What dangerous bodily condition is a patient with Borhave syndrome at high risk for developing?

Mediastinitis and sepsis

29
New cards

How many days must a patient typically remain NPO following surgical repair of an esophageal diverticulum or perforation?

Roughly 7 to 10 days

30
New cards

Who is responsible for placing an NG tube for enteral feeding if needed during an esophageal diverticulum surgery?

The physician during surgery

31
New cards

Why is inducing vomiting never indicated for foreign bodies in the GI tract?

Because it can cause further injury or re-expose the esophagus to sharp or caustic agents

32
New cards

What specific type of foreign body requires immediate emergency retrieval via EGD rather than being pushed into the stomach?

Small batteries

33
New cards

Why are small batteries uniquely dangerous when ingested?

They are caustic, highly acidic, can burn through the GI tract rapidly, and cause perforations

34
New cards

What primary instruction regarding intake must be followed immediately when managing a patient with a caustic chemical burn?

Keep the patient NPO to prevent re-exposing the esophagus via vomiting

35
New cards

What specific physical complication must nurses monitor for closely following a caustic chemical burn to the esophagus?

Respiratory distress and airway edema

36
New cards

What class of medications is administered for airway edema following a chemical burn to the esophagus?

Corticosteroids

37
New cards

What type of anti-infective medications are given alongside IV fluids and steroids for chemical burns?

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

38
New cards

What is pyrosis?

The medical term for heartburn, which is a classic clinical manifestation of GERD

39
New cards

What cardiac event must be ruled out first when patients present to the ER with severe chest or epigastric pain spreading to the jaw due to acid reflux?

An acute coronary event

40
New cards

What class of beverages containing caffeine must be avoided in GERD patients even in their non-caffeinated forms?

Coffee and tea, due to residual caffeine.

41
New cards

What specific type of mint must be avoided because it relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter?

Peppermint and spearmint

42
New cards

What type of beverages containing bubbles can aggravate GERD symptoms?

Carbonated beverages

43
New cards

What diagnostic test serves as the gold standard for directly visualizing mucosal injury and diagnosing Barrett's esophagus?

EGD with biopsies

44
New cards

What long-term cancer risk is associated with Barrett's esophagus due to mucosal alterations from chronic acid exposure?

Esophageal adenocarcinoma

45
New cards

What structural difference exists between gastritis and a peptic ulcer regarding tissue depth?

Gastritis is a generalized, partial-thickness inflammation, whereas a peptic ulcer is a localized, full-thickness excavation

46
New cards

What descriptive shape is used to characterize a peptic ulcer lesion?

A hollowed-out excavation or erosion

47
New cards

What specific type of salt is included in quadruple therapy for H. pylori alongside a PPI and antibiotics?

Bismuth salts, such as Pepto-Bismol

48
New cards

What specific antibiotics are typically used in triple therapy for H. pylori alongside a PPI?

Metronidazole or Amoxicillin plus Clarithromycin

49
New cards

What specific antibiotics are combined in quadruple therapy for H. pylori?

Metronidazole and Tetracycline

50
New cards

When does pain typically occur in patients with gastric ulcers?

Immediately or shortly after eating, as food irritates the lesion

51
New cards

When does pain typically occur in patients with duodenal ulcers?

2 to 3 hours after eating

52
New cards

How should Proton Pump Inhibitors be ingested in terms of pill form integrity?

Swallowed whole; they must not be crushed because they are enteric-coated

53
New cards

What time of day in relation to meals should Proton Pump Inhibitors be taken?

Before meals

54
New cards

What specific electrolyte imbalance is listed as a long-term risk of Proton Pump Inhibitor use?

Hypomagnesemia

55
New cards

What specific deficiency risks are associated with long-term PPI use besides magnesium?

Iron and vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

56
New cards

What specific bacterial infection is linked as an increased long-term risk of PPI therapy?

C. diff infections

57
New cards

What specific skeletal risk is linked to long-term PPI use?

Bone fractures due to impaired calcium absorption

58
New cards

What potential neurological or cognitive link has been suggested with long-term PPI use in literature?

Potential links to dementia

59
New cards

What specific mechanism defines the action of Sucralfate in the GI tract?

It is a surface or cytoprotective agent that chemically adheres to ulcer sites to form a protective barrier

60
New cards

What is the strict timing rule for taking Sucralfate relative to meals?

On an empty stomach, 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals, and at bedtime

61
New cards

What is the fundamental mechanism of action of antacids like Maalox, Mylanta, or Tums?

They neutralize gastric acid rather than coating the stomach or decreasing acid production

62
New cards

What specific timing window must be maintained between administering antacids and other oral medications?

1 hour before or 2 hours after other medications

63
New cards

What gastrointestinal side effect is specifically caused by aluminum-based antacids?

Constipation

64
New cards

What gastrointestinal side effect is specifically caused by magnesium-based antacids?

Diarrhea

65
New cards

What is the primary pharmacological classification of Metoclopramide?

A GI stimulant or prokinetic agent

66
New cards

What structural and functional effects does Metoclopramide have on the upper gastrointestinal tract?

It strengthens the lower esophageal sphincter and accelerates gastric emptying

67
New cards

What specific conditions are treated using Metoclopramide?

GERD, gastroparesis, and nausea

68
New cards

What is the black box warning associated with Metoclopramide use?

Tardive dyskinesia, which involves uncontrollable muscle movements

69
New cards

What is the single greatest risk factor associated with dysphagia?

Aspiration, which can lead to aspiration pneumonia

70
New cards

At what specific angle must a patient with dysphagia be positioned during feeding?

Upright at 90 degrees

71
New cards

What specific patient posture technique is mentioned as a bedside safety measure for swallowing?

The chin-tuck position

72
New cards

What essential piece of emergency equipment must be kept set up at the bedside for a patient with dysphagia?

Suction equipment

73
New cards

Why is the duration for a short-term nasogastric tube restricted to under 4 weeks?

Due to risks of nasal erosion, pressure injury, and keeping the lower esophageal sphincter propped open

74
New cards

What is the expected lifespan duration for a PEG tube used for long-term enteral nutrition?

1 to 2 years

75
New cards

What is the expected lifespan duration for a J-tube used for enteral nutrition?

6 to 9 months

76
New cards

What specific preparation step must be done to pills before giving them through an enteral feeding tube?

Crush pills thoroughly if they are crushable

77
New cards

What types of medications must never be crushed for enteral tube administration?

Enteric-coated or sustained-release medications

78
New cards

How many medications can be administered at a time through an enteral tube to prevent dangerous clogs?

Medications must be administered one at a time

79
New cards

How much water is typically used to flush an enteral feeding tube before and after each individual medication?

Typically 15 mL.

80
New cards

Why must Total Parenteral Nutrition be administered exclusively through a central line?

Because the solution is highly concentrated and hypertonic, which would damage peripheral blood vessels.

81
New cards

What specific types of central lines can be used to infuse TPN safely?

Subclavian, internal jugular (IJ), or PICC line.

82
New cards

How often must blood glucose levels be checked as a routine monitoring parameter for a continuous TPN infusion?

Every 6 hours.

83
New cards

Why must blood glucose be monitored frequently during TPN administration?

Due to the very high carbohydrate and glucose concentration in the TPN formula.

84
New cards

Can insulin be added to a TPN infusion?

Yes, insulin can be added directly to the TPN bag if needed.

85
New cards

What is achalasia?

A primary esophageal motility disorder characterized by impaired peristalsis of the distal esophagus and a failure of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) to relax during swallowing.

86
New cards

What are the symptoms of achalasia?

Progressive dysphagia for both liquids and solids, nocturnal regurgitation of undigested food, halitosis, and weight loss.

87
New cards

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for achalasia?

Esophageal manometry.

88
New cards

What specific radiographic finding on a barium swallow indicates achalasia?

A 'bird-beak' appearance at the distal esophagus.

89
New cards

What is a hiatal hernia?

A condition where a portion of the stomach slides upward through an opening or weakened area in the diaphragm.

90
New cards

What is a Sliding (Type I) hiatal hernia?

A hernia where the gastroesophageal junction and a portion of the stomach slide upward through the diaphragmatic hiatus.

91
New cards

What is a Paraesophageal (Type II) hiatal hernia?

A hernia where the gastric fundus rolls up through the hiatus beside the esophagus while the gastroesophageal junction remains in place.

92
New cards

What is the primary surgical procedure performed to repair severe hiatal hernias or GERD?

Nissen fundoplication.

93
New cards

What is Zenker's diverticulum?

A pouch-like herniation of the esophageal mucosa and submucosa that occurs posteriorly through the pharyngoesophageal junction in the upper esophagus.

94
New cards

What is Boerhaave syndrome?

A spontaneous, full-thickness perforation of the distal esophagus caused by sudden, severe intra-esophageal pressure from forceful vomiting or retching.

95
New cards

Why is an EGD (upper endoscopy) generally contraindicated when a Zenker's diverticulum is suspected?

Because the wall of the diverticulum is very thin, carrying an extremely high risk of instrument perforation.

96
New cards

What is Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?

A chronic digestive disease where stomach acid or bile irritates the food pipe lining due to frequent relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES).

97
New cards

What is Barrett's esophagus?

A premalignant condition where normal squamous epithelium of the lower esophagus is replaced by columnar epithelium due to chronic gastric acid exposure.

98
New cards

What diagnostic test is required to definitively diagnose and monitor Barrett's esophagus?

EGD with serial biopsies.

99
New cards

What is gastritis?

A generalized, partial-thickness inflammation of the gastric mucosa.

100
New cards

What is a peptic ulcer?

A localized, full-thickness excavation or erosion in the mucosal wall of the stomach or duodenum.