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What source controls aircraft limits and procedures?
The current approved AFM/POH and applicable supplements for the specific aircraft.
Can a generic Information Manual replace the aircraft AFM?
No; it may omit aircraft-specific equipment, approvals, and revisions.
What are the five major airplane components?
Fuselage, wings, empennage, landing gear, and powerplant.
What is the fuselage?
The main body; carries occupants/cargo and connects major components.
What is monocoque construction?
A stressed shell carries nearly all loads; deformation can weaken it.
What is semi-monocoque construction?
Stressed skin reinforced by bulkheads, formers, and stringers.
What are common aircraft composites?
Carbon fiber and fiberglass.
What are composite advantages and cautions?
Light, smooth, corrosion-resistant; hidden damage and heat damage remain concerns.
What composite caution applies to the course DA20?
Check its structural temperature indicator as required by the applicable AFM.
What does a wing spar do?
Carries primary wing loads; ribs give shape and stringers add support.
What do ailerons control, and about which axis?
Roll about the longitudinal axis (nose to tail).
Where are ailerons located?
Outboard trailing edges of the wings.
What happens with left aileron input?
Left aileron rises, right lowers; lift difference rolls the airplane left.
What does the elevator control, and about which axis?
Pitch about the lateral axis (wingtip to wingtip).
What does aft elevator input do in a conventional tail?
Elevator rises, tail moves down, and nose pitches up.
What does the rudder control, and about which axis?
Yaw about the vertical axis.
What does right rudder input do?
Rudder moves right, tail moves left, and nose yaws right.
What is the empennage?
The tail assembly: stabilizers, elevator or stabilator, rudder, and applicable tabs.
What is a stabilator?
An all-moving horizontal tail.
What does an anti-servo tab do?
Moves with the stabilator to increase control resistance; may also provide trim.
When should you trim?
After setting the desired attitude and speed; trim away sustained pressure.
How does a conventional trim tab move?
Opposite the control surface; nose-up trim moves the tab down to help raise the elevator.
Where are flaps located?
Usually on the inboard trailing edges of the wings.
What does lowering flaps generally do?
Increases lift and drag, lowers stall speed, and permits slower, steeper approaches.
What is a plain flap?
A trailing-edge surface that hinges down to increase camber.
What is a split flap?
The lower trailing-edge surface deflects down.
What is a slotted flap?
A slot feeds airflow over the flap to delay separation.
What is a Fowler flap?
Moves aft and down, increasing wing area and camber.
How do tricycle and conventional landing gear differ?
Tricycle has a nosewheel; conventional has a tailwheel.
How is the course DA20 steered on the ground?
A freely castering nosewheel and differential braking.
What is differential braking?
Unequal braking on the main wheels to turn on the ground.
What is the powerplant?
Engine and propeller; the engine may also power other aircraft systems.
What are typical AFM sections 1 through 3?
1 General; 2 Limitations; 3 Emergency Procedures. Verify the manual's organization.
What are typical AFM sections 4 through 6?
4 Normal Procedures; 5 Performance; 6 Weight and Balance/Equipment List.
What are typical AFM sections 7 through 10?
7 Systems; 8 Handling/Service/Maintenance; 9 Supplements; 10 optional Safety Tips.
What is standard sea-level pressure and temperature?
29.92 inHg (about 14.7 psi) and 15 C (59 F).
How does pressure change with altitude?
It decreases with increasing altitude; about 1 inHg per 1,000 ft is only a low-altitude approximation.
What pressure does the pitot tube sense?
Total pressure; the ASI compares it with static pressure.
Which instruments use static pressure?
ASI, altimeter, and VSI.
How does the ASI work?
Displays airspeed from the difference between total and static pressure.
How does the altimeter work?
Uses static pressure and aneroid wafers to indicate altitude.
What is the Kollsman window?
The altimeter-setting window; set current local pressure as appropriate.
How does the VSI work?
Measures static-pressure change through a calibrated leak to show climb/descent rate.
What does the ASI white arc mean?
Flap operating range: Vso to Vfe.
What does the ASI green arc mean?
Normal operating range: Vs1 to Vno.
What does the ASI yellow arc mean?
Caution range; smooth air only and use caution.
What does the ASI red line mean?
Vne: never-exceed speed.
What is Vso?
Stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration.
What is Vs1?
Stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration; this course uses clean.
What is Vfe?
Maximum flap-extended speed; limits may differ by flap setting.
What is Vno?
Maximum structural cruising speed.
What happens if the pitot inlet is blocked but the drain is open?
ASI tends toward zero; altimeter and VSI remain usable.
What happens if both pitot inlet and drain are blocked?
ASI rises in a climb and falls in a descent, like an altimeter.
What happens if the static port is blocked?
Altimeter freezes; VSI settles to zero; ASI underreads above and overreads below blockage altitude.
What can help with blocked pressure sources?
Pitot heat for pitot ice; an alternate static source for static blockage, if equipped. Follow the AFM.
What does "high to low, look out below" mean?
Without resetting from high to low pressure, true altitude is lower than indicated.
What is the cold-air altimeter error?
In colder-than-standard air, true altitude is lower than indicated.
What is the warm-air altimeter error?
In warmer-than-standard air, true altitude is higher than indicated.
What is gyro rigidity in space?
A spinning gyro tends to retain its plane of rotation.
What is gyroscopic precession?
The response occurs 90 degrees ahead of the applied force in the direction of rotation.
What does the attitude indicator display?
Pitch and bank relative to the horizon.
What does the heading indicator require?
Compass alignment and periodic drift correction in straight, level, unaccelerated flight.
What does the turn coordinator display?
Rate of turn/roll, plus coordination on the ball; not bank angle.
What commonly powers conventional gyro instruments?
Attitude/heading: vacuum; turn coordinator: electrical. Verify actual equipment.
What powers a magnetic compass?
Earth's magnetic field; no aircraft electrical power is required.
What is magnetic variation?
The angle between true and magnetic north; shown by isogonic lines.
What is compass deviation?
Aircraft magnetic interference; correct using its compass card.
What causes compass acceleration and turning errors?
Magnetic dip.
What does ANDS mean?
Northern Hemisphere: Accelerate North, Decelerate South; strongest on east/west headings.
What does UNOS mean?
Northern Hemisphere compass rollout: Undershoot North, Overshoot South.
What is a standard-rate turn?
3 degrees per second; 360 degrees in 2 minutes, 180 in 1 minute.
How do you center the inclinometer ball?
Apply rudder toward the ball: "step on the ball."
How does the ball indicate a slip or skid?
Toward the low wing: slip; outside the turn: skid.
What is AHRS?
Attitude and Heading Reference System; uses electronic inertial sensors.
What does a magnetometer sense?
Earth's magnetic field for electronic heading; installation/calibration matter.
What inputs does an air data computer use?
Pitot pressure, static pressure, and outside-air temperature.
What is a PFD?
Primary Flight Display; depends on functioning sensors and power.
What are the two major engine groups?
Reciprocating/piston and turbine; turbine examples include turbojet, turbofan, and turboshaft.
What engine layout is common in light airplanes?
Horizontally opposed cylinders.
How does a piston engine drive the propeller?
Combustion moves pistons; connecting rods turn the crankshaft.
What are the four piston-engine strokes?
Intake, compression, power, exhaust.
What happens during the intake stroke?
Piston moves away from the head; intake valve opens and charge enters.
What happens during compression?
Piston moves toward the head; both valves close and pressure/temperature rise.
What happens during the power stroke?
Spark near the end of compression ignites the charge; closed valves allow gases to drive the piston down.
What happens during exhaust?
Piston moves toward the head; exhaust valve opens and burned gases leave.
What does the induction system do?
Supplies air, meters/mixes fuel, and delivers the charge to cylinders.
How does a carburetor venturi draw fuel?
Air speeds up through a restriction, pressure drops, and fuel enters the airflow.
How do carburetion and fuel injection differ?
Carburetor mixes upstream; injection delivers metered fuel near each cylinder intake port.
What is a fuel-injection benefit and common issue?
More uniform fuel distribution; hot starts and vapor lock can be concerns.
What do throttle and mixture control?
Throttle controls charge/power; mixture controls fuel relative to air.
Why adjust mixture with altitude?
Climbing reduces air density; lean/enrich only according to the AFM.
How does EGT change through mixture adjustment?
Rises toward peak, then falls on either the richer or leaner side; manufacturer limits govern leaning.
What is the course DA20 leaning example?
25 F rich of peak EGT; no EGT leaning above 75% power. Verify applicable current AFM.
What causes carburetor ice?
Venturi pressure drop and fuel vaporization cool the throat/throttle area.
What carb-ice conditions does the course emphasize?
High humidity and 20-70 F; icing can also occur outside that range.
What are fixed-pitch carb-ice symptoms?
RPM loss and rough running.
Why can carb heat initially reduce power?
Warmer, less-dense air enriches mixture; melting ice may briefly worsen roughness.
Can a fuel-injected engine have intake icing?
Yes; it avoids carburetor ice, but ice can block the intake/filter.
What does alternate air do?
Bypasses an obstructed intake/filter; the course source is unfiltered, so follow AFM use limits.
What fuel pumps are in the course system?
Engine-driven pump plus electric auxiliary pump for specified operations and failures.