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Five primary goals of vaccination programs:
1.) Prevent/reduce clinical disease
2.) Reduce disease severity and mortality
3.) Improve herd health and productivity
4.) Reduce economic losses
5.) Help animals develop immunity against pathogens
Vaccination does not necessarily prevent ______, but can improve an animal's ability to ______ ______ infection
Infection; cope with
Eight factors to consider when developing a farm-specific vaccination program:
1.) Animal type and age
2.) Geographic location/local disease prevalence
3.) Previous farm disease history
4.) Seasonal disease patterns
5.) Management practices
6.) Timing of stressful events
7.) Introduction of new animals
8.) Previous vaccination history
Vaccination is generally more effective when performed ______ anticipated stressors. Why?
before; vaccination itself can cause temporary inflammation and additional stress
Three major types of vaccines:
1.) Killed vaccines/toxoids
2.) Modified-live vaccines
3.) Chemically altered vaccines
Killed vaccine
Contains an inactivated pathogen that cannot replicate but can still stimulate an immune response
Toxoid
Contains an inactivated bacterial toxin that stimulates immunity against the toxin
Three advantages of killed vaccines/toxoids:
1.) Generally safe
2.) Cannot spread vaccine organisms
3.) Minimal abortion risk
Three disadvantages of killed vaccines/toxoids:
1.) Typically require two initial doses
2.) Slower development of immunity
3.) Often more expensive
Killed vaccines primarily stimulate ______ immunity
Antibody-mediated (humoral)
Modified-live vaccine (MLV)
Contains a live pathogen modified to reduce its ability to cause disease while retaining its ability to stimulate immunity
Three advantages of modified-live vaccines:
1.) Rapid development of immunity
2.) Strong immune response
3.) Often less expensive
Modified-live vaccines stimulate both ______ and ______ immunity
humoral; cell-mediated
Three disadvantages/considerations of modified-live vaccines:
1.) Potential abortion risk
2.) Require careful timing
3.) Require proper handling and mixing
Chemically altered vaccine
Contains a pathogen that has been chemically modified to reduce its ability to cause disease while maintaining immunogenicity
Twp advantages of chemically altered vaccines:
1.) Share many MLV advantages
2.) Have safety characteristics similar to killed vaccines
Disadvantage of chemically altered vaccines:
Usually require two doses
Which type of vaccine requires particular caution in pregnant animals? Why?
Modified-live vaccines; potential risk of abortion or reproductive complications
Which vaccine type generally produces rapid, strong immunity?
Modified-live vaccines
Which vaccine types generally require two doses for initial immunization?
Killed vaccines/toxoids and chemically altered vaccines
Passive immunity
Protection provided by antibodies received from another individual rather than produced by the recipient's own immune system
Maternal vaccination
Vaccinating the dam before parturition to stimulate antibody production and provide protection to her offspring through colostrum
Why is maternal vaccination particularly important in ruminants?
Newborns have immature immune responses and rely heavily on colostral antibodies for early protection
Six steps explaining how maternal vaccination protects newborn offspring:
1.) Dam is vaccinated
2.) Dam produces antibodies
3.) Antibodies accumulate in colostrum
4.) Newborn nurses and absorbs antibodies
5.) Passive immunity protects the newborn
6.) Newborn's own immune system continues developing
Colostral antibodies provide important protection for approximately ___-___ weeks after birth
3-4 weeks
Why is protection during the first month of life especially important?
Newborns have immature immune systems and are particularly susceptible to infectious disease
Three reasons immediate neonatal vaccination is not a reliable substitute for colostral immunity:
1.) Immature immune system
2.) Vaccination requires time to stimulate immunity
3.) Vaccination can cause additional inflammatory stress
Why might vaccinating a newborn immediately after birth fail to protect it from a pathogen-loaded environment?
The newborn may encounter pathogens before it has time to develop vaccine-induced immunity
Vaccination after approximately ______ ______ of age is generally safer than relying on immediate neonatal vaccination
one month
Maternal vaccination should occur sufficiently ______ parturition to allow an appropriate antibody response
before
Why should unnecessary vaccination immediately before parturition be avoided?
It may cause additional physiological stress in a heavily pregnant animal
The primary strategy for protecting newborn calves, lambs, kids, and crias is what?
vaccinating the dam before birth and ensuring colostral protection
Scours
Diarrhea in young livestock, including calves, lambs, kids, and crias
Calf scours is the leading cause of ______ and ______ during the first six months of life
Morbidity; mortality
Five potential consequences of calf scours
1.) Severe diarrhea/dehydration
2.) Poor growth
3.) Increased susceptibility to additional disease
4.) Death
5.) Economic losses
Three important pathogen targets for scours vaccination:
1.) Rotavirus
2.) Coronavirus
3.) Clostridium perfringens types C and D
Why vaccinate pregnant dams against scours?
To increase pathogen-specific antibodies in colostrum and reduce the severity of neonatal diarrhea
Scours vaccines often contain ______ of pathogens rather than targeting only one infectious agent
combinations of pathogens
Four steps explaining how environmental contamination can increase scours during calving season
1.) Infected animals shed pathogens
2.) Pathogens accumulate in barns/pastures
3.) Newborns encounter an increased pathogen load
4.) Disease frequency and severity increase
Why might scours become more common toward the end of calving season?
Pathogens progressively accumulate in the environment as more animals give birth
Scours prevention should combine vaccination with appropriate ______ _______ and ______
Environmental management; sanitation
Clostridial diseases
Diseases caused by Clostridium species, many of which are environmental pathogens capable of causing severe illness or sudden death
Why is preventive vaccination particularly important for clostridial diseases?
Many progress rapidly and may cause death before treatment can be effective
Three broad categories of clostridial disease:
1.) Histotoxic
2.) Neurotoxic
3.) Enteric
Histotoxic disease -->
Neurotoxic disease -->
Enteric disease -->
Histotoxic disease --> Disease involving tissue damage and destruction
Neurotoxic disease --> Disease caused by toxins that interfere with normal nervous system function
Enteric disease --> Disease involving the gastrointestinal tract
CD&T vaccine
A bacterin/toxoid vaccine targeting Clostridium perfringens types C and D and Clostridium tetani
Three pathogens targeted by CD&T vaccination:
1.) C. perfringens type C
2.) C. perfringens type D
3.) C. tetani
C. perfringens types C and D are important causes of ______ disease in young ruminants
Enteric
C. tetani is responsible for ______
Tetanus
Why vaccinate pregnant dams with CD&T before parturition?
to provide newborn offspring with protective colostral antibodies
Blackleg
A severe, frequently fatal clostridial disease caused by Clostridium chauvoei
Causative agent of blackleg
Clostridium chauvoei
An important clinical characteristic of blackleg is...
Sudden death in an animal that previously appeared healthy
Ex: receiving calls from producers who discovered several cattle dead in their pasture despite appearing normal the previous day
Why is proactive blackleg vaccination particularly important?
The disease can progress so rapidly that treatment may not be possible before death occurs
Autogenous vaccine
A vaccine manufactured using a pathogen isolated from a particular herd or farm
Which C. perfringens type is associated with autogenous vaccine development?
Type A
Bovine respiratory disease complex (BRDC)
A multifactorial respiratory disease involving interactions between infectious pathogens and factors that compromise respiratory health
Two major infectious components involved in BRDC:
1.) Viral pathogens
2.) Bacterial pathogens
Four major viral agents targeted by common BRD vaccines:
1.) IBR
2.) BVD
3.) PI3
4.) BRSV
IBR →
BVD →
PI3 →
BRSV →
IBR → Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
BVD → Bovine viral diarrhea
PI3 → Parainfluenza-3 virus
BRSV → Bovine respiratory syncytial virus
Three major bacterial pathogens associated with BRDC:
1.) Mannheimia haemolytica
2.) Pasteurella multocida
3.) Histophilus somni
Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida, and Histophilus somni are Gram-______ bacteria
Negative
Why can Gram-negative bacteria worsen BRDC?
They contain endotoxin, which contributes to inflammation and disease severity
Five steps explaining the development of BRDC
1.) Viral infection disrupts respiratory function
2.) Respiratory defenses become compromised
3.) Bacteria colonize the lungs
4.) Bacterial infection/endotoxin increase inflammation
5.) Respiratory disease worsens
How do viral respiratory infections predispose cattle to secondary bacterial pneumonia?
They damage or disrupt normal respiratory defenses, allowing bacterial pathogens to colonize the lungs more easily
Many commercial BRD vaccines combine multiple ______ and ______ antigens into a single product
Viral; bacterial
Calf BRD vaccination should start at approximately ______ months of age, depending on herd protocol
3-6 months
Brucellosis
An infectious disease caused by Brucella species that can cause reproductive disease in livestock and can be transmitted to humans
Primary Brucella species in cattle
Brucella abortus
Brucellosis is an important ______ disease
Zoonotic!
Three major concerns associated with bovine brucellosis:
1.) Reproductive disease
2.) Zoonotic transmission
3.) Economic/public health consequences
What reproductive material is an important source of Brucella exposure?
Infected placental material
Development of ______ vaccines has contributed to improved brucellosis control
B. abortus
Brucellosis vaccination is subject to ______ regulations
government (rather than being entirely at the producer's discretion)
Brucellosis vaccination of heifers at begins at approximately ___-___ months of age, when indicated
4-12
Five major animal groups requiring individualized vaccination protocols:
1.) Adult cows/bulls
2.) Breeding animals
3.) Nursing calves
4.) Feeder/stocker calves
5.) Replacement heifers
Three main vaccine groups recommended for adult cows and bulls:
1.) IBR/BVD/PI3/BRSV
2.) Leptospirosis (5-way)
3.) Vibriosis
Five optional vaccine targets for adult cows and bulls:
1.) Trichomoniasis
2.) Pinkeye
3.) Blackleg 7-way
4.) Anthrax
5.) Anaplasmosis
Breeding animals should generally be vaccinated approximately ______ weeks before breeding
6-8 weeks
Four vaccine groups for breeding animals:
1.) IBR/BVD/PI3/BRSV
2.) Leptospirosis
3.) Vibriosis
4.) Trichomoniasis
Why vaccinate breeding animals before breeding?
To establish immunity before pregnancy and reduce unnecessary vaccination during sensitive reproductive periods
Four vaccine considerations for nursing calves:
1.) 7-way clostridial
2.) IBR/BVD/PI3/BRSV
3.) Brucellosis when recommended
4.) Leptospirosis for replacements when appropriate
Feeder/stocker calves
Young cattle raised for further growth or eventual finishing rather than currently serving as breeding animals
Four major vaccine groups for feeder/stocker calves:
1.) IBR/BVD/PI3/BRSV
2.) 7-way clostridial
3.) Mannheimia haemolytica
4.) Pasteurella multocida
Four factors to consider when developing feeder/stocker calf vaccination protocols:
1.) Previous vaccination history
2.) Age/management system
3.) Weaning/transportation
4.) Farm-specific disease risks
Vaccination should ideally be planned around ______ events rather than relying on a universal schedule
Management events
Five vaccines for replacement heifers before breeding:
1.) IBR/BVD/PI3/BRSV
2.) Vibriosis
3.) Leptospirosis
4.) Blackleg 7-way
5.) Verification of brucellosis vaccination status
Five important vaccine label claims:
1.) Prevention of infection
2.) Prevention of disease
3.) Aid in disease prevention
4.) Aid in disease control
5.) Safety
Prevention of infection
Demonstrated ability to prevent infection according to applicable licensing criteria
Prevention of disease
Demonstrated protection against clinical disease, without necessarily preventing infection
Aid in disease prevention
Vaccination helps reduce the occurrence of disease
Aid in disease control
Vaccination contributes to controlling disease rather than necessarily providing complete individual protection
Safety (vaccine label claim)
Indicates that a vaccine meets applicable safety requirements; does not automatically establish efficacy
Vaccine safety
Whether a vaccine causes unacceptable harm
Vaccine efficacy
Whether a vaccine provides its intended protection
A vaccine can be considered ______ without having demonstrated ______
Safe; efficacy
Conditional-use vaccine
A vaccine authorized under conditional requirements without necessarily having the same established efficacy profile as a fully licensed product
Three examples of newer/conditional vaccine platforms discussed:
1.) Tick vaccines
2.) Farm-specific vaccines
3.) Experimental vaccines for emerging pathogens
Why is understanding vaccine label claims important?
Different claims represent different levels of demonstrated protection and should not be treated as interchangeable
Why should vaccination generally be used proactively rather than as the primary response to an active outbreak?
Vaccination requires time to stimulate immunity and may not immediately protect animals already infected or exposed