NBCD

Increased energy needs

1. You know that a patient with diarrhea has higher metabolic needs, and therefore, more calories are needed to counteract the effects of inflammation (e.g., fever) due to infection. No dietary assessment data is available for this case. What would be the most appropriate problem you would include in the nutrition diagnosis based solely on this case?

Amino acids

2. The levels of this macronutrient in the body are most depleted after a day of fasting or into starvation:

Serotonin

3. In the Gut Microbiota-Brain axis, what hormone is being produced mostly by the presence of gut bacteria which influences our mood?

Only the first statement is correct.

4. Atonic constipation needs a low-fiber diet. During hemorrhoidal pain attacks, an increase in dietary fiber with adequate fluid are recommended.

Decreased prothrombin time

5. Which is not expected in the biochemical assessment of liver failure?

Thiamin and Riboflavin

6. Which nutrients are necessary for carrying electrons from the glycolysis and TCA cycle to the ETC to generate energy?

Complex indigestible carbohydrates

7. Firmicutes prefer what food substrate to proliferate in the gut?

Brain stem

8. Which of the following body structures helps to regulate thirst?

45 g

9. 3 tbsp of salt is equivalent to how much sodium?

Consommé and bouillon

10. Which of the following is discouraged in xerostomia?

Sulfonylurea

11. What class of anti-diabetic drugs preserve the function of incretins like GLP-1?

Ascorbic acid

12. Pallor and spoon-shaped nails are a set of deficiency symptoms of:

Install a feeding tube

13. Which of the following is the best to serve a patient with reduced salivary output?

Nutrition Assessment

14. The patient’s status is re-examined by gathering new data and assessing how it compares with the previous status, expected outcomes, and established standards.

Increased albumin

15. You conducted a biochemical assessment on a patient with diarrhea. What would you expect to come out of his lab tests?

Intake

16. This is a domain under Nutrition Diagnosis terminology that includes functional problems.

Sugar

17. What compound does hinder iron absorption and may cause spontaneous abortion?

This is often precipitated by a prior Streptococcus infection in children

18. What is nephrotic syndrome?

Anti-inflammatory

19. Which of the following is one of the functions of Vitamin E?

Ascites

20. Low sodium diet is recommended in advanced liver stages to treat:

Stomach

21. H. pylori infection promotes carcinogenesis in:

Steatosis

22. Refer to the following diagram, which shows the usual progression of chronic liver disease caused by a variety of factors. If the last stage (E) represents hepatocarcinoma (liver cancer), which of the following is represented by the penultimate stage (D)?

Angiotensin is released to increase water reabsorption

23. When the body fluid level is low:

Colorectal cancer

24. Virgin coconut oil (VCO), which contains MCT, has been studied to improve the prognosis of ______ through lowering the c-reactive protein.

Chylomicrons

25. Which of the following carries triglycerides synthesized from the liver?

Nitrogen balance

26. All of the following are indicators of fluid requirement, except:

Evening/dinner

27. Most proteins for someone w/ Parkinson’s are taken during the:

Decreased transferrin saturation

28. Which of the following may indicate “inadequate iron intake?”

Vit D

29. What vitamin enhances the absorption of iron?

Only the first statement is correct.

30. Nutrigenomics and nutrigenetics have different technical meanings. RNDs can use the results of nutritional genomics studies to provide population-based nutrition intervention.

Iodine

31. Thyroxine contains what mineral?

Cornstarch

32. Which source of carbohydrates would you recommend in a patient with glycogen storage disease?

Only the first statement is correct.

33. Hyperparathyroidism promotes bone resorption. There is more prominent hypoalbuminemia and hyperalbuminuria in nephritic than in nephrotic syndrome.

Fruit juice

34. Which of the following is discouraged in cancer patients experiencing diarrhea?

Bitter

35. H+ ions are detected by the tongue and then processed by the brain as:

Only the first statement is correct.

36. High albumin level indicates excessive protein intake. Low albumin level indicates protein deficiency.

Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-Maleficence, Justice

37. The four (4) Principles of Bioethics can be applied to common case scenarios on Nutrition Support.

Only the first statement is correct.

38. Sulfur is only found in two amino acids. Magnesium is found in the central part of carotene’s structure.

Fat

39. Which macronutrient would you likely increase in a patient with Cushing’s syndrome?

B12, B9, B6, choline

40. Which of the following is the set of vitamins performing in biomethylation?

Menadione

41. Gut bacteria produce what vitamer of vitamin K?

Inadequate energy intake

42. A patient that has contracted a foodborne hemorrhagic colitis and is currently being hospitalized. The prognosis is poor, as the patient has lost several pounds within a week. It was inferred that the weight loss is due to the progression of the disease to hemolytic uremic syndrome. What would be the most appropriate problem you would include in your PES statement based solely on the data given in this case?

Candy, oil

43. Considered as a "neutral food" that can be incorporated either in acid ash and or alkaline ash diet:

1-hydroxycholecalciferol

44. Which of the following is the active form of Vit D?

Duodenum

45. Vit B12 is absorbed in:

Rough ER

46. This is known as the “post office” inside of cells:

Muscles

47. Which would likely be the source of bases to buffer metabolic acidosis?

The pancreas is stimulated to produce more lipase, leading to more fat to digest & absorb

48. This is how excess carbohydrate intake leads to obesity.

Nutrition diagnosis, nutrition assessment

49. The goals of nutrition intervention must be based on the ______, while the nutrition intervention actions/strategies must first target the ______.

1500 kcal

50. How many calories does a 1500 mL 10% fat emulsion contain?

Hyperkalemia

51. It is said that vigorous and rapid administration of insulin can cause too much potassium to move into the cells, thereby causing:

Glucagon

52. What hormone do the alpha cells of the pancreas produce?

Fatty fish

53. Consumption of stanols (2 g/day) is recommended to lower LDL levels. Which food source is particularly rich in this?

I only

54. Which is the effective way of preventing calcium oxalate stones?I. Increase fluidII. Decrease oxalate foodsIII. Increase calcium intakeIV. Decrease calcium intake

Deduct 5-10% from IBW

55. What would you do to determine the IBW of a quadriplegic patient?

IDA

56. If a patient experiences steatorrhea that is not immediately treated, what micronutrient deficiency would most likely follow?

It is not safe

57. Which statement is true about amino acid supplementation?

0.70%

58. How much percentage of body weight would you deduct from the IBW of a patient w/ a left foot amputation?

Lymph fluid

59. The fluid in the blood is included in:

Is the GI tract functional?

60. Which of the following questions might lead to administration of parenteral nutrition?

PN should be delayed for 5-7 days for COVID-19 patients with significant EN intolerance and low nutrition risk

61. Which of the following is true?

Alcoholism

62. Which of the following is the most significant factor in the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Liver

63. Choline deficiency primarily affects what organ?

Small intestines

64. Where is ghrelin produced?

High in calories, low in other nutrients

65. Nutritionally dense foods are defined as:

Plant-Based Food

66. Described as foods as well as fortified, enriched, or improved foods that may have a positive impact on health when regularly consumed as a part of a diverse diet.

High triglyceride levels

67. Which factor most likely contributes to the development of lipodystrophy in HIV patients?

Hemolysis

68. What is likely the effect of vitamin E deficiency?

Meat, poultry, fish

69. To avoid excessive flatulence, what should be avoided?

Gastrostomy

70. If there is a risk of aspiration, which would you use?

Duodenum

71. Most nutrients are absorbed in:

Low selenium diet

72. A patient has been scheduled for radioiodine therapy to treat thyroid cancer. Weeks prior to the procedure, this patient must be recommended with a:

Apple

73. For patients with chronic heart failure under diuretic therapy such as bendroflumethiazide and furosemide, which food would an RND incorporate into the patients’ diet?

Ingestion

74. What is the second step in moving a nutrient through the GI tract?

Vit E

75. Methotrexate, a cancer drug, shares a similar structure with:

Intake

76. When multiple nutrition problems from across different nutrition diagnosis domains can be possibly labeled to a patient, which must be selected?

Insulin resistance

77. Which of the following is true about Diabetes Mellitus Type I?

Thiamin

78. What vitamin deficiency would you expect in a patient with methylmalonic aciduria?

The kcal and protein intakes need to be further increased

79. A patient with 75% of the total body surface 3rd-degree burns was hospitalized and subjected to intense nutrition therapy. After a 2-week administration of high kcal, high protein enteral formula, the lab results were determined. Still, his albumin level is low. What can you infer from this observation?

Trigeminal nerve

80. This is the nerve responsible for transmitting the “gastrointestinal fill” signal from the GI tract to the hypothalamus:

Retinol

81. Which vitamin acts like a hormone?

Intermittent

82. Which type of enteral feeding administration involves using a large syringe to deliver pureed or liquefied food directly into the stomach?

B6

83. An NFPE showed that the patient suffers from alopecia and has dull and sparse hair. The patient is most likely deficient in:

Before meals

84. Anti-emetic drugs should be taken:

It is a thick, viscous substance produced by mucosal cells as a defense against digestive fluids

85. Which of the following best characterizes chyme?

Nutrition counseling

86. Which of the following is a supportive process, characterized by a collaborative counselor–client relationship that sets priorities, establishes goals, and creates individualized action plans that acknowledge and promote responsibility for self- or group care?

Kidneys

87. The second hydroxylation of cholecalciferol happens in what organ?

Fat loss

88. Depression in the buccal area primarily indicates:

Respiratory alkalosis

89. If the damaged kidneys (such as in the case of AKF or CKD) are unable to secrete excess acidic metabolic by-products and retain bicarbonates, this would lead to:

Carrots

90. Which of the following is a rich source of pre-vitamin A?

Increase calcium intake

91. What dietary management is given to patients taking streptomycin?

Only the first statement is correct.

92. Excess water-soluble vitamins are most likely retained in the body. Water-soluble vitamins need chylomicrons for them to be absorbed.

Nerve

93. Tissue that enables a person to think & answer questions:

Production of hydrochloric acid

94. This is the function of intestinal microvilli:

Diverticulosis: high fiber diet

95. Which of the following is correctly paired?

Iron

96. Ceruloplasmin is the main transport protein of:

High-fat foods

97. Foods with laxative effects are not recommended for patients with diarrhea to consume. Which of the following does not have a laxative effect?

Anti-histamines

98. A low-tyramine is prescribed to a patient taking:

Glycerol

99. After the body has been fasting for some time, which of the following is used to provide the fuel the brain requires?

PEM

100. Parasitism in school-aged children commonly leads to: