RCA Final Guide

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Last updated 1:12 AM on 8/5/26
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93 Terms

1
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What are the standard abdominal radiographic views? ________________, __________________, and __________________.

AP supine; PA erect; KUB

2
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What is the usual kVp for abdominal radiography? _______________

70-80 kvp

3
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What kind of contrast is used for radiographic swallows and enemas?

________________.

Barium

4
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What type of intravenous contrast is used for computed tomography?

_____________________.

iodinated contrast

5
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In general, what are the indications for an abdominal or pelvic diagnostic ultrasound? _____________/____________________, __________________, ____________, and abnormal lab _____________ serum levels

Infections; inflammatory conditions; neoplasms; stones; bilirubin

6
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What contrast agent is used for abdominal MRI? _____________

Gadolinium

7
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What is the most common renal fusion anomaly? __________

Horseshoe kidney

8
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Bilateral renal agenesis has a normal life expectancy.

False

9
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What is crossed fused renal ectopia?

An anomaly where the kidneys are fused and located on the same side of the midline.

10
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A pelvic kidney is a normal variant, but WHAT ELSE would cause a kidney to be seen in the pelvis? ________________ _____________________.

Renal transplant

11
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Which kidney does a dromedary hump occur?

Left

12
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Which lobe does a Riedel Lobe occur? ________________

Right

13
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Which lobe does a Beaver Tail lobe occur? __________________

Left

14
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What are malformations or agenesis of the female reproductive system called?

Mullein Duct Anomalies

15
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What is the most common gastric malignancy?

adenocarcinoma

16
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What are the 3 types of lymphadenopathies (nodal metastases) that may present

with abdominal malignancies and where are they located?

a. _______________- Where? ______________________________________________.

b. ___________ _______ _______________- Where? ________________________. c. ___________- Where? _________________________________________________

A. Virchows node: left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy

B. Sister Mary Joseph's node: umbilical node lymphadenopathy

C. Irish node: axillary lymphadenopathy

17
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What is the most common location for small intestine adenocarcinoma? _________________.

duodenum

18
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What is the most common location for large intestine adenocarcinoma? _________________.

Rectosigmoid

19
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What is the most common benign tumor of the gastrointestinal tract? _______________________________

Leiomyomas

20
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What is the most common cause of appendicitis and where is it located?

_____________________________________________________________________________

appendiocolith - calcification in the right iliac fossa

21
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What is the most common location of epiploic appendagitis? What other pathologies can have a similar presentation clinically?

rectosigmoid; acute appendicitis and diverticulitis

22
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What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic atherosclerosis?

______________________________.

Chronic hypertension

23
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What are the 4 risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms?

a. _____________________________________ b. _____________________________________

c. _____________________________________ d. _____________________________________

A. >65 yoa

B. male

C. Hx of smoking

D. Chronic HTN leading to atherosclerosis

24
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What measurement of an abdominal aorta is considered aneurysmal? _______ cm.

>3

25
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When is an abdominal aorta considered emergent? ___________ cm or _________ at any measurement above 3 cm.

>5-6; symptomatic

26
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What is the most common location of an abdominal aortic aneurysm? ______________________________________.

above bifurcation into common iliac arteries

27
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What imaging modality is most appropriate for screening and monitoring an AAA?

Diagnostic US

28
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Are phleboliths clinically significant?

No

29
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Which granulomatous disease prefers the spleen? H_____________

Histoplasmosis

30
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What is the most common location for echinococcus? __________

Liver

31
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What organism causes schistosoma infection? _____________________

blood fluke (trematode worm)

32
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What is the most common liver tumor?

Metastatic disease

33
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What is the most common primary carcinoma to metastasize to the liver?

_____________________.

colon

34
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What is the most common benign tumor of the liver and spleen? _____________________.

Hemangioma

35
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What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis? ____________________.

Gallstones lodged in the ducts

36
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What percentage of gallstones calcify? ________%

15

37
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What tissue type is the most common gallbladder malignancy? A______________

Adenocarcinoma

38
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What is gallstone ileus?

Large gallstone that erodes through to the duodenum, passes through the GI tract and gets stick at the ileocecal valve

39
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What are the 3 main causes of pseudocysts of the spleen?

a. ____________________________ b. _______ _______ c. _______ _________

A. Trauma

B. Splenic infarction

C. Locoregional inflammation

40
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What is the most common cause of autosplenectomy? ________________________.

sickle cell anemia (homozygous)

41
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How does someone acquire chronic pancreatitis? ___________________________

excessive alcohol consumption

42
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What is the most common benign tumor of the pancreas? _______________ _______________

Microcystic adenoma

43
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What is the most common malignant tumor of the pancreas? A____________

Adenocarcinoma

44
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What is the most common cystic lesion of the pancreas? ________________

Psuedocyst

45
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What is the most common etiology for unilateral adrenal hemorrhage? __________________

Trauma

46
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What is the most common adrenal lesion? __________________

adenoma

47
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Which adrenal tumor causes uncontrolled secondary hypertension? _______________________________.

Pheochromocytomas

48
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What is the most common composition of kidney stones?

Calcium oxalate

49
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What % of kidney stones are radiopaque?

85%

50
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What advanced imaging is the most appropriate follow-up for kidney stones?

Abdominopelvic CT without contrast

51
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Locations stone commonly "get stuck":

a. __________________________

b. __________________________

c. __________________________

d. __________________________

e. __________________________

A. Uretopelvic junction

B. In ureter overlying lumbar TPs

C. In ureter at pelvic brim

D. Ureterovesical junction

E. Bladder outlet (rare)

52
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Which 2 types of stones are radiolucent?

a. __________________________

b. __________________________

A. Uric acid

B. Protease-related (Indinavir)

53
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What is the composition of a staghorn calculus?

struvite (triple phosphate)

54
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Which type of nephrocalcinosis is most common?

medullary nephrocalcinosis

55
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What is the classiication used to describe renal cysts?

Bosniak classification

56
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Which level of renal cyst needs follow-up at 6 months after initial CT exam?

2 F

57
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Which benign tumor looks similar to renal cell carcinoma clinically and on imaging?

Oncocytomas

58
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What is the clinical triad of renal cell carcinoma?

a. _____________________ b. _____________________ c. _____________________

A. Hematuria

B. Flank pain

C. Palpable flank mass

59
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What is the most common cause of bladder stones?

Urinary stasis

60
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What tumor does schistosomiasis predispose a patient to?

squamous cell carcinoma

61
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What is the most common solid benign tumor of the uterus?

leiomyomas (fibroids)

62
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What kind of calciication is seen in a uterine leiomyoma?

Popcorn

63
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What is the most common ovarian neoplasm?

Cystic teratoma

64
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What is the most common ovarian malignancy?

Cystadenocarcinoma

65
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What calciication in the male pelvis is most seen in diabetics?

Ductus deferens

66
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If prostatic calculi are symptomatic, what underlying etiologies are possible?

a. ___________________

b. __________________

c. ______________

A. Prostatitis

B. Prostate cancer

C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy

67
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What are scrotal pearls?

benign incidental extratesticular marcocalcification w/in the scrotum

68
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What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction? _________ ________

Adhesive disease

69
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What are the measurements for dilated small bowel loops that are at risk for rupture? __________ cm proximally and __________ cm distally

3; 2.5

70
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What is the step ladder sign?

Stacked prominent valvulae conniventes due to obstruction

71
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What is the string of beads sign?

small pocket of gas w/in a fluid filled small bowel

72
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What is the most common of large bowel obstruction? _________________

Colorectal carcinoma

73
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What are the measurements for dilated large bowel loops that are at risk for rupture? ____________ cm. Cecum dilation? ____________ cm

6; 9

74
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What sign is associated with sigmoid volvulus? __________ _______ _______

Coffee bean sign

75
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What distinguishes a sigmoid volvulus from a cecal volvulus? No _________________ ________

Haustral markings

76
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What sign is associated with a cecal volvulus? ______ _______

Comma sign (reversed C sign)

77
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What is a dynamic ileus?

Stasis of bowel contents without mechanical obstruction

78
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What portion of the bowel is typically affected by Crohn disease? ______ ______

terminal ileum

79
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What are prominent radiological features of Crohn disease? ____________________ and ________________

Thumbprinting and Skip Lesions

80
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What portion of the bowel is typically afected by ulcerative colitis?

Distal colon and rectum

81
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What are the most common causes of toxic megacolon?

a. ____________________________________ b. ____________________________________

A. Acute ulcerative colitis

B. Crohn's disease

82
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What is the diference between diverticulosis and diverticulitis?

Both have multiple outpouchings along the colon wall but diverticulitis involves inflammation/ infection of the diverticula

83
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What portion of the colon is most commonly affected by diverticulosis/diverticulitis? ___________

Sigmoid colon

84
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What is pneumobilia?

Air within the biliary tree causing central linear radiolucent branching over the liver

85
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Most common cause of pneumobilia?

Sphincterotomy during a ERCP

86
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Emphysematous cholecystitis is a surgical emergency?

Yes

87
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What special population is prone to developing emphysematous infections?

Diabetes mellitus

88
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What bacterium is most implicated in emphysematous infections?

E. coli

89
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What radiographic view is pneumoperitoneum the most readily identified?

PA chest

90
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What is the most common cause of pneumoperitoneum?

perforated gas-filled viscus

91
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What radiographic signs are associated with pneumoperitoneum?

a. _________________________

b. _________________________

c. _________________________

d. _________________________

A. Rigler's sign

B. Football sign

C. Falciform Ligament Sign

D. Continuous Diaphragm Sign

92
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What is ascites?

Free fluid within the peritoneal space

93
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What is the most common cause of ascites?

Liver disease or malignancy