Special Considerations - Head and Neck

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Last updated 1:13 PM on 10/18/26
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243 Terms

1
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According to the Rule of 7s, what diagnosis corresponds to a neck mass duration of ~7 days?

Inflammatory

2
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According to the Rule of 7s, what diagnosis corresponds to a neck mass duration of ~7 months?

Neoplastic

3
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According to the Rule of 7s, what diagnosis corresponds to a neck mass duration of ~7 years?

Congenital

4
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What embryologic remnant forms a Thyroglossal Duct Cyst?

Residual thyroid tissue left behind during its descent

5
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In what patient population do Thyroglossal Duct Cysts most commonly present?

Midline neck mass in children

6
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Where do 80% of Thyroglossal Duct Cysts occur relative to the hyoid bone?

At or just below the hyoid bone

7
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What physical maneuvers cause a Thyroglossal Duct Cyst to move on examination?

Moves with deglutition or tongue protrusion

8
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What percentage of Thyroglossal Duct Cysts contain functional thyroid tissue?

5%

9
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What is the definitive surgical treatment for a Thyroglossal Duct Cyst?

Sistrunk procedure

10
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What is the external opening location for a 1st Branchial Cleft Cyst?

Pre-auricular area

11
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What is the internal opening location for a 1st Branchial Cleft Cyst?

Middle ear

12
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What is the external opening location for a 2nd Branchial Cleft Cyst?

Lateral neck at SCM

13
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What is the internal opening location for a 2nd Branchial Cleft Cyst?

Tonsillar fossa

14
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What is the external opening location for a 3rd Branchial Cleft Cyst?

Lateral neck at SCM

15
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What is the internal opening location for a 3rd Branchial Cleft Cyst?

Pyriform sinus

16
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What is the most common branchial cleft anomaly?

2nd branchial cleft anomaly

17
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In which decade of life do branchial cleft cysts usually present?

1st decade of life

18
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What is the definitive treatment for a Branchial Cleft Cyst?

Complete excision

19
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What primary developmental defect leads to a Cystic Hygroma?

Maldevelopment and obstruction of lymphatic system

20
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Do sequestrations of lymphatic tissue in a Cystic Hygroma communicate with the lymphatic system?

No communication with the lymphatic system

21
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What physical palpation features describe a Cystic Hygroma?

Soft, compressible, and non-tender mass

22
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Where are Cystic Hygromas usually located in the neck?

Lateral or posterior triangle of the neck

23
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What is the preferred imaging modality for evaluating a Cystic Hygroma?

MRI

24
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What is the primary surgical treatment approach for a Cystic Hygroma?

Complete surgical resection preserving vital neck structures

25
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What intralesional sclerosing agents are injected for Cystic Hygroma treatment?

OK-432, bleomycin

26
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What are the clinical manifestations of anterior oral cavity neoplasms?

Fleshy exophytic mass, heaped-up ulcers, pain, tooth loosening, impairment of tongue mobility

27
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What clinical manifestation characterizes tonsillar fossa or retromolar trigone neoplasms?

Trismus with infiltration of pterygoid muscles

28
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What are the clinical manifestations of larynx neoplasms?

Hoarseness, dysphagia, dyspnea, pain, cervical lymphadenopathy

29
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What are the clinical manifestations of nasopharynx neoplasms?

Nasal obstruction, decreased hearing acuity, ocular motor palsy, cervical lymphadenopathy

30
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What are the clinical manifestations of maxillary sinus neoplasms?

Cheek swelling, palatal bulging, orbit extension

31
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What are the clinical manifestations of salivary gland neoplasms?

Asymptomatic firm lump, skin or mucosal ulceration, paresthesia or paralysis, cervical lymphadenopathy

32
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What tissues comprise Waldeyer's ring?

Palatine tonsils, lingual tonsils, adenoid, and tubal tonsils

33
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What are the most common disorders affecting Waldeyer's ring?

Chronic or recurrent adenotonsillitis, adenotonsillar hypertrophy

34
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What is the typical etiology and presentation of benign lip lesions?

Subject to chronic irritation, presenting as scaling lesions

35
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What histologic spectrum of lesions can present as lip scaling lesions?

Dysplasia, hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, dyskeratosis, carcinoma in situ, invasive carcinoma

36
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What is the treatment for benign lip lesions?

Wide excision +/- reconstruction

37
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What is the underlying pathophysiology of a mucous retention cyst in the oral cavity?

Submucosal mucus accumulation, mostly due to ruptured ductal system rather than ductal obstruction

38
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What are the physical appearance and typical size of a mucous retention cyst?

Bluish hue cystic structure, typically less than 1 cm, smooth

39
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What is a ranula?

Mucous retention cyst involving the sublingual gland

40
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What is the treatment for a ranula?

Excision or marsupialization

41
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What defines an epulis?

Granulomatous lesions due to exaggerated inflammation

42
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Where does congenital epulis occur?

In the anterior maxilla

43
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In what percentage of pregnant women does pregnancy epulis occur, and what is its course?

Occurs in 1% of pregnant women, resolves spontaneously

44
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What is the treatment for an epulis?

Excision if symptomatic and persistent

45
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What is the origin and appearance of a peripheral giant cell reparative granuloma?

Soft tissue in origin; polypoid, submucosal, and fibrous; may ulcerate and bleed

46
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What is the treatment for a peripheral giant cell reparative granuloma?

Excision

47
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What is the origin and radiographic appearance of a central giant cell reparative granuloma?

Expansile endosteal lesion of the mandible of bony origin

48
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What is the treatment for a central giant cell reparative granuloma?

Curettage

49
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What alternative name is given to a granular cell myoblastoma?

Abrikossoff tumor

50
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From what cell type is a granular cell myoblastoma derived?

Schwann cells

51
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Where in the tongue does a granular cell myoblastoma typically present?

Firm, submucosal swelling in the mid 1/3 of tongue

52
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What is the treatment for a granular cell myoblastoma?

Wedge excision

53
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What benign/inflammatory ulcerative lesions occur in the oral cavity?

Aphthous ulcer, pemphigus vulgaris, necrotizing sialometaplasia, white sponge nevus, Lichen planus, and Oral hairy leukoplakia

54
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What is the general management approach for ulcerative lesions of the oral cavity?

Usually resolves spontaneously, otherwise treated with steroids; biopsy if needed to rule out carcinoma

55
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What common clinical symptom do polyps and squamous papillomas of the nose cause?

Nasal obstruction

56
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What is the treatment for nasal polyps and squamous papillomas?

Excision

57
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What defines a juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (JNA)?

Highly expansile and destructive fibrovascular neoplasm

58
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In what patient demographic do juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibromas typically occur?

Adolescent males

59
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How does a juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma present clinically?

Epistaxis which can be massive

60
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What is the primary treatment for a juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?

Angioembolization

61
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What percentage of epistaxis comes from the anterior nasal septum?

90%

62
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What clinical clues suggest posterior nasal septum epistaxis?

Massive epistaxis, bilateral bleeding, hemodynamic instability, aspiration

63
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Where do laryngeal papillomas usually arise?

True vocal cord

64
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What is the primary presenting symptom of a laryngeal papilloma?

Hoarseness

65
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Which type of laryngeal papilloma usually recurs after treatment?

Juvenile type

66
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What is the treatment for laryngeal papilloma?

Excision or laser ablation

67
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What is a laryngocele?

Herniation of the laryngeal ventricles due to chronic increase in intralaryngeal pressure

68
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What is the treatment for a laryngocele?

Ligation of stalk and repair of the ventricles

69
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From what structures do odontogenic tumors arise?

Progenitors of tooth development

70
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Which facial bones are involved in odontogenic tumors?

Maxilla and mandible

71
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What is the primary management approach for most odontogenic tumors?

Conservative

72
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From what structure does an ameloblastoma (adamantinoma) arise?

Dental lamina

73
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What dental abnormality is associated with an ameloblastoma?

Impacted tooth

74
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What are the clinical characteristics of an ameloblastoma?

Painless benign but locally aggressive mandibular mass that may erode the bone cortex

75
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What classic radiographic finding is seen in ameloblastoma?

Soap-bubble appearance

76
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What is the definitive surgical treatment for ameloblastoma?

Resection (marginal vs sectional)

77
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What facial deformity is associated with ameloblastoma?

Andy-Gump deformity

78
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Why is curettage not recommended for ameloblastoma?

High recurrence rate

79
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What are the established risk factors for malignant head and neck tumors?

Tobacco use, alcohol consumption, nutritional deficiencies, immunosuppression, viruses (HPV, EBV), occupational exposures (wood dust, nickel, paint), fumes/metal works/textiles/radiation/asbestos, older age, low socioeconomic status

80
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What percentage of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) is HPV-positive?

20%

81
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What percentage of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) is HPV-negative?

80%

82
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What viral proteins are expressed in HPV-positive HNSCC?

E6 and E7 positive

83
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What is the p53 status in HPV-positive HNSCC?

Mainly wild-type TP53

84
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What is the prognosis for HPV-positive HNSCC?

Favorable prognosis

85
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What percentage of HPV-negative HNSCC cases have high CIN?

65%

86
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What percentage of HPV-negative HNSCC cases have low CIN?

15%

87
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What is the p53 status in HPV-negative HNSCC with high CIN?

Mainly mutated TP53

88
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What is the incidence trend for HPV-negative HNSCC?

Decreasing

89
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What is the incidence trend for HPV-positive HNSCC?

Increasing

90
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What are the primary etiologies of HPV-negative HNSCC?

Smoking, excessive alcohol use

91
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What is the primary etiology of HPV-positive HNSCC?

Oral sex

92
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What is the typical patient age for HPV-negative HNSCC?

Above 60 years

93
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What is the typical patient age for HPV-positive HNSCC?

Under 60 years

94
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Is field cancerization present in HPV-negative HNS

95
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What tumor size defines T1 stage in HNSCC TNM staging?

2 cm or less in diameter, confined to site of origin

96
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What tumor size defines T2 stage in HNSCC TNM staging?

>2 to 4 cm in diameter

97
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What tumor size defines T3 stage in HNSCC TNM staging?

>4 cm in diameter

98
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What tumor characteristics define T4 stage in HNSCC TNM staging?

Massive tumor with invasion of surrounding structures

99
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What nodal status defines N0 in HNSCC TNM staging?

No regional lymph node metastasis

100
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What nodal status defines N1 in HNSCC TNM staging?

Metastasis in a single ipsilateral node < 3 cm