Certified Ophthalmic Assistant (COA)

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639 Terms

1
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How are systemic medications administered?

Orally, injection (subcutaneously or intramuscularly) or intravenously

2
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How should drops be properly instilled into a patient's eye?

Into the lower cul de sac (lower fornix)

3
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What does the term idiosyncrasy refer to with ophthalmic drugs?

A bizarre, peculiar reaction to a drug that is not commonly seen, such as tremors, excitability or even collapse

4
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What is the name of the instrument used to neutralize lenses?

Lensometer (Lensmeter)

5
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When recording a prism in a spectacle prescription, what does the abbreviation BO stand for?

Base out

6
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What is determined by focusing the thin lines in a manual lensometer?

The sphere of the spectacle prescription

7
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What is the first step in performing lensometry?

Focus the eyepiece

8
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When PRK is being performed, time remaining in the procedure should be announced in increments of ______

10 seconds

9
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Name the organism that is most destructive to the eye.

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

10
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What procedure using an Argon Laser is thought to destroy areas of ischemic retina?

Panretinal photocoagulation or panretinal laser

11
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What type of intraocular injection is made at the Pars plana site with a needle and syringe of medication?

Intravitreal injection

12
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What are the parallel movements of the eyes from one gaze position to another

Versions

13
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What is the movement of one eye called

Duction

14
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Versions and ductions are tested by using ________ to test the six pairs of _______ muscles.

Six Cardinal positions, yoke

15
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The movement of the eye outward toward the temple is called _____

Abduction

16
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What is the technique used to measure the radius of curvature of the anterior corneal surface?

A-Scan Keratometry Length Measurements

17
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Keratometry is performed with a device called a ______

Keratometer or ophthalmometer

18
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Give three examples in which a Keratometry measurement would be useful.

Contact lens fitting, refractive surgery, intraocular lens calculations, keratoconus

19
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Keratometry is measured in _____

Diopters

20
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Measuring intraocular pressure is also called _____

Tonometry

21
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The higher the intraocular pressure of an eye, the ____ the eye

Harder

22
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Applanation tonometry displaces less than ____ of aqueous.

0.5 microliters

23
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When recording intraocular pressure, the reading on the Goldmann applanation tonometer scale should be multiplied by ____.

10

24
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Because there are no rods or cones in the optic nerve head a____ blind spot is created in the normal visual field.

Physiologic

25
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A defect in the patient's superior temporal retina, will affect the patient's ____ field of vision.

Inferior nasal

26
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The two basic methods employed to map the field of vision are ____ and ____ perimetry.

Kinetic, static

27
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A localized area of reduced sensitivity in a visual field that is surrounded by an area of greater sensitivity is termed a ____.

Scotoma

28
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And unfocused eyepiece can lead to an error of ____.

1 diopter in the K reading

29
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How many meridians are measured in keratometry?

2 meridians (usually 90° apart)

30
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The average K reading is ____.

43-44 diopters

31
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Keratometry measures the____ of the anterior curvature of the cornea.

Central 3.3 mm

32
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The diffusion of oxygen through a contact lens material is referred to as ____.

DK value

33
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True or False: The application and evaluation of a diagnostic lens on the eye is the best way to fit a contact lens

True

34
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Name the instrument used to determine the posterior surface radius of curvature of a rigid contact lens.

Radiuscope and or Contacto Gauge

35
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Increased thirst, excessive urine, production, increased hunger and weight loss are characteristics of which endocrine disease?

Diabetes insipidus

36
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What finding can occur 6 to 8 hours after a metallic foreign body enters the cornea?

Rust ring

37
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Why are alkali burns more serious than acid burns on the cornea?

Alkali burns penetrate deeper

38
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Variability in the functions of levator and extraocular muscle is characteristic in which systemic disease?

Myasthenia gravis

39
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What is the name of the mucous membrane covering the interior sclera?

(Bulbar) Conjunctiva

40
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What type of glaucoma constitutes an ocular emergency?

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

41
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Protocols for pressure patching or shields require that adhesive tape must be applied from the ____ to the ____.

Bridge of the nose, ear lobe

42
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What is the minimum thickness of safety lenses?

3.0 mm

43
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What is the name of the important screening process used in emergencies determine the patient's ocular needs?

Triage

44
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What is a hemorrhage confined to the anterior chamber termed?

Hyphema

45
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____ drugs induce contractions of the iris sphincter

Miotic

46
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Name the three types of ophthalmic preparations placed directly in the eye.

Solutions, suspensions, ointments

47
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What is the main disadvantage of using an ophthalmic solution?

The duration of contact with the eye is short, therefore it requires frequent instillation

48
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What is the disadvantage of using an ophthalmic ointment?

The ointment reduces vision by creating a greasy film over the surface of the cornea, and is best used at bedtime.

49
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Gross evaluation of the patient's peripheral vision can be accomplished with ____ visual field testing.

Confrontation

50
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The ____ visual field test compares the boundaries of the patient's visual field with that of the examiner.

Confrontation

51
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The Amsler grid test determines the presence and location of defects in the ____ portion of the visual field.

Central

52
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During Amsler grid testing the patient should be instructed to view the grid through his or her ____ correction.

Near

53
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Checking the calibration of the Goldmann applanation tomometer is performed with a ____.

Balance or calibration rod

54
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The Goldmann applanation to tonometer prism is best cleaned between patients with ____.

Hydrogen peroxide soaks or 1:10 bleach solution

55
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Which dye solution is used when performing Goldmann applanation?

Fluorescein dye

56
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What is the diameter of the corneal area properly applanated by a Goldmann tonometer?

3.06 mm

57
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____ photography documents the posterior segment of the eye.

Fundus

58
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____ devices create three dimensional digital images of the optic nerve, and retina.

Tomography

59
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Three of the most common tomographic image devices are ____, ____, and ____.

Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT), Heidelberg Retinal Tomography (HRT), and GDx scanner laser polorimeter

60
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The data provided by tomographic devices are useful in evaluating progressive ____ and ____ damage.

Optic nerve and retinal nerve fiber layer

61
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Ophthalmic photography serves to ____ and ___ ophthalmic conditions.

Document and diagnose

62
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Which area of the cornea is the thickest?

The stroma

63
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What type of pets should not be used on a patient with a lacerated globe?

A pressure patch

64
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When long waiting times occur in the office what is the ophthalmic medical assistant's responsibility

To communicate with patients and keep them informed in a sensitive manner

65
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What can be used to immobilize an infant for an ophthalmic examination?

A papoose board

66
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____ is any irritation or inflammation of the conjunctiva

Conjuntivitis

67
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In fundus photography, when the camera is too far from the eye, a ___ ___ will form around the image.

Blue-Grey halo

68
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"Diagnostic" or "standardized" ____ are performed for quantitative evaluation of a tissue's structure, reflectivity, and sound absorption

A-Scans

69
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____ photography is used to photograph the anterior segment of the eye.

Slit-lamp

70
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Specular photomicrography is a method of evaluating the ____ surface of the cornea.

Endothelial

71
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The visual acuity notation 20/200 indicates the patient could see the 200 optotype at ____ feet.

20

72
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If the patient perceives light and can indicate the source direction, the vision is recorded as ____.

Light perception with projection (LPw/P)

73
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The distance of 20 feet is used in visual acuity assessment because it approximates____.

Optical infinity

74
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The visual acuity value of 20/40 is expressed as the metric equivalent ____.

6/12

75
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The pinhole acuity test is used to confirm whether ____ ____ is the cause of a decrease in visual acuity.

Refractive error

76
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What is the normal range of intraocular pressure?

13-20 mm Hg

77
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Which method of tonometry is described as the measurement of the amount of pressure needed to flatten the cornea buy a standard amount?

Applanation tonometry

78
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What measurement error is produced when the fluorescein rings are too narrow during applanation tonometry?

Falsely low reading

79
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What measurement error is introduced when the patient holding his or her breath or wearing a collar that is buttoned too tightly, is applanated?

Falsely high reading

80
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Measuring intraocular pressure is also called ____.

Tonometry

81
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____ ____ is a red dye useful in evaluating the integrity of the corneal epithelium.

Rose bengal

82
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The ____ ____ test uses rainbow colored cups that must be arranged in order of similar hues

Farnsworth-Munsell 100-hue

83
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The ____ ____ ____ color vision test consists of a series of plates with a gray background and colored circles, crosses, and triangles

Hardy-Rand-Ritter

84
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Name the tear deficiency test which uses strip of filter paper inserted into the lower fornix.

Schirmer's Test

85
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While assessing visual acuity, the assistant notes the patient consistently misses the optotypes on the temporal side of the chart, indicating a possible.

Visual field defect

86
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In Visual acuity assessment The brightness acuity tester (BAT) is used to evaluate ____ when there are opacities in the ocular media.

Glare

87
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In patients with nystagmus, visual acuity often improves dramatically when the vision is assessed ____.

Binocularly

88
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At what distance are adult near visual acuity charts designed to be read?

14-16 inches from the eye

89
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Normal visual acuity in a two month old infant may be estimated by ____.

Fixation (follow at 3-months)

90
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What is the name of the instrument used to measure extension of the anterior surface of the cornea beyond the lateral orbital rim?

Exophthalmeter

91
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Name at least one example of a glare testing device

RVA, BAT (Brightness Acuity Test), or Eye Con

92
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Name the two measurements required to determine the dioptic power of the intraocular lens

A-Scan (axial length of the eye) and Keratometry (corneal curvature)

93
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When performing A-Scan biometry, a 1mm error in axial length may result in a ____ diopters calculated IOL power error

Three

94
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What is the term for the amount of time it takes for dry spots to form on the cornea when the eye is in a staring position

BUT (break-up time)

95
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How is anterior chamber angle depth estimated using a slit lamp?

A thin light beam is placed at the limbus at an angle of approximately 60° and the distance between the posterior limit of the corneal beam and the anterior limit of the iris beam is compared with the thickness of the optical section of the cornea

96
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Which two ocular structures can touch of the anterior chamber is flat?

Iris and cornea

97
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When determining anterior chamber depth using a flashlight test, a shadow on the nasal iris indicates ____.

Abnormally shallow anterior chamber (narrow angle)

98
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Ophthalmologists often estimate anterior chamber depth by measuring the angle between the ____ and ____

Anterior surface of the iris, posterior surface of the cornea

99
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Which color vision test consists of pseudo isochromatic plated that determine red-green color anomalies and deficiencies?

Ishihara

100
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Which color defects may be distinguished by the Ishihara test?

Red and green