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204 Terms

1
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Which premium schedule results in the lowest cost to the policyowner?

Annual

2
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Which settlement option pays a stated amount to an annuitant, but no residual value to a beneficiary?

life income

3
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Who has the right to change a revocable beneficiary?

policyowner

4
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5
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6
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Which statement is true regarding a minor beneficiary?

Normally, a guardian is required to be appointed in the Beneficiary clause of the contract

7
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M purchased an Accidental Death and Dismemberment (AD&D) policy and named his son as beneficiary. M has the right to change the beneficiary designation at anytime. What type of beneficiary is his son?

Revocable

8
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A policyowner is able to choose the frequency of premium payments through what policy feature?

premium mode

9
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K is the insured and P is the sole beneficiary on a life insurance policy. Both are involved in a fatal accident where K dies before P. Under the Common Disaster provision, which of these statements is true?

Proceeds will be payable to insured’s estate if beneficiary dies within a specified time

10
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T is the policyowner for a Life Insurance policy with an Irrevocable beneficiary designation. If T wishes to change the beneficiary, T must obtain permission from the

beneficiary

11
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If the insured and primary beneficiary are both killed in the same accident and it cannot be determined who died first, where are the death proceeds to be directed under the Uniform Simultaneous Death Act?

Insured's contingent beneficiary

12
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A level premium indicates:

the premium is fixed for the entire duration of the contract

13
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A policyowner is allowed to pay premiums more than once a year under which provision?

Mode of Premium

14
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J would like to maintain the right to change beneficiaries. Which beneficiary designation should be used?

Revocable

15
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P and Q are married and have three children. P is the primary beneficiary on Q's Accidental Death and Dismemberment (AD&D) policy and Q's sister R is the contingent beneficiary. P, Q, and R are involved in a car accident and Q and R are killed instantly. The Accidental Death benefits will be paid to:

P only

16
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Agent J takes an application and initial premium from an applicant and sends the application and premium check to the insurance company. The insurance company returns the check back to J because the check is made out to J instead of the insurance company. What action should J take?

Return to the customer, collect a new check made out to the insurance company, and send the new check out to the insurance company

17
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Which factors are taken into consideration when an insurance company determines the premium rate for a Whole Life policy on an applicant?

Risk classification

18
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Consumer reports requested by an underwriter during the application process of a life insurance policy can be used to determine:

probability of making timely premium payments

19
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D the agent met with a prospect and ended up selling an insurance policy. While filling out the insurance application, D makes a mistake. In this situation, D MUST

correct the information and have the prospect initial the change

20
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A life insurance application must be signed by all of these, EXCEPT:

beneficiary

21
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T applies for a life insurance policy and is told by the producer that the insurer is bound to the coverage as of the date of the application or medical examination, whichever is later. Assuming that T is an acceptable risk, what item is given to T?

conditional receipt

22
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What is the initial source of underwriting for an insurance policy?

Application containing statements from the insured

23
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An agent gives a conditional receipt to a client for an insurance policy after collecting the initial premium. When will the policy become effective?

When the conditions of the receipt are met

24
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ABC Insurance Company has accepted a life insurance application which contains unanswered questions. The company then makes the application part of the life contract. In this situation, the insurer has:

waived one of its legal rights

25
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Which Federal law allows an insurer to obtain an inspection report on a potential insured?

FCRA

26
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Which parts of a life insurance policy are guaranteed to be true

warranty

27
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At what time must a policyowner have insurable interest on the insured in order for the life policy to be valid?

At the time of application

28
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The USA Patriot Act was enacted in:

2001

29
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The entity whose sole purpose is sharing medical data among its member companies is called the

MIB

30
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The reason for backdating a policy is

to obtain a premium rate based on an earlier age

31
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Which of the following is an important underwriting principle of group life insurance?

Everyone must be covered in the group

32
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When an employee is terminated, which statement about a group term life conversion is true?

Policy proceeds will be paid if the employee dies during the conversion period

33
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Company XYZ offers a group Term Life insurance plan to its employees. What does each employee covered under this plan receive?

Certificate of insurance

34
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If its employees share in the cost of insurance, what type of group life insurance plan would a corporation have?

contributory

35
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An employee of 20 years recently retired at age 59 1/2. This employee's group life contract can be:

converted to an individual permanent policy at an individual rate

36
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Under federal tax laws, what is the tax treatment for an employer providing $50,000 of a contributory group Term Life plan to all its eligible employees?

Portion of the premiums paid for by the employer may be a tax deduction

37
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What type of group insurance plan involves employees sharing the cost?

contributory plan

38
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Which of the following statements about noncontributory employee group life insurance is FALSE?

A minimum number of employees is required to participate

39
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Group life insurance policies are generally written as:

annually renewable term

40
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S, while in the process of converting her group life insurance to an individual policy, dies. What happens to the claim her beneficiary submits?

Full benefits are payable under the Master contract

41
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N, age 50, recently bought an annuity that will pay a guaranteed $2,000/month at age 70 for life. What type of annuity did N purchase?

fixed deferred

42
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T, age 70, withdraws cash from a profit-sharing plan and purchases a Straight Life Annuity. What will this transaction provide?

Income that cannot be outlived by the owner

43
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An individual who purchases a Life annuity is given protection against:

the risk of living longer than expected

44
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The payments on Q's annuity are no less than $250 quarterly. Which of the following annuities does Q own?

Flexible Installment Deferred

45
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Variable annuities may invest premiums in each of the following, EXCEPT:

Insurer's corporate business account

46
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W is a 39-year old female who just purchased an annuity to provide income for life starting at age 60. All of these would be acceptable annuity choices, EXCEPT a(n):

immediate annuity

47
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What type of annuity has a cash value that is based upon the performance of it's underlying investment funds?

variable

48
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K has inherited a large sum of money. K purchases an annuity with this sum on July 1, and starts receiving payments August 1. These payments will continue for as long as she and her spouse lives. Which type of annuity did K purchase?

Single Premium Immediate Joint with Survivor Annuity

49
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Which of the following are Equity Indexed annuities typically invested in?

s & p 500

50
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Which of these statements concerning an Individual Straight Life annuity is accurate?

Payments are made to an annuitant for life

51
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Which statement regarding a Key Employee Life policy is NOT true?

The beneficiary is named by the key employee

52
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Two partners own equal shares in a business worth a total of $1,000,000. If they both commit to the purchase of a life insurance policy that will fund a Buy-Sell Agreement, which of the following is TRUE?

Each partner owns a $500,000 policy on their partner's life

53
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Which type of plan allows an employer to give money to an employee for buying a life insurance policy and also permits the employee to select the beneficiary?

Split-dollar plan

54
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An architecture firm would stand to lose a lot of money in the event of the death of its project manager. Which type of policy should the firm purchase on its project manager?

Key Person Life Policy

55
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Company Z has a Cross Purchase Buy-Sell Agreement in place among its three founding partners. If the agreement is funded with individual life insurance, what would it require?

Each partner must own a policy on the other partners

56
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An IRA owner can start making withdrawals and NOT be subjected to a tax penalty beginning at what age?

59 1/2

57
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What type of employee welfare plans are not subject to ERISA regulations?

church plans

58
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A trustee-to-trustee transfer of rollover funds in a qualified plan allows a participant to avoid:

mandatory income tax withholding on the transfer amount

59
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How long does an individual have to "rollover" funds from an IRA or qualified plan?

60 days

60
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Which product would best serve a retired individual looking to invest a lump-sum of money through an insurance company?

annuity

61
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A sole proprietor may use this plan ONLY if the employees of this business are included.

Keogh Pension Plan

62
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An individual working part-time has an annual income of $25,000. If this individual has an IRA, what is the maximum deductible IRA contribution allowable?

7500

63
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Premature IRA distributions are assessed a penalty tax of:

10%

64
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Which of the following is TRUE if the owner of an IRA names their spouse as beneficiary, but then dies before any distributions are made?

The account can be rolled into the surviving spouse's IRA

65
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Tom has a qualified retirement plan with his employer that is currently considered to be 80% "vested". How can this be interpreted?

If Tom's employment is terminated, 20% of the funds would be forfeited

66
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What determines the full amount of Social Security retirement benefits a qualified individual is entitled to receive?

primary insurance amount

67
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What is Old Age and Survivors Disability Insurance (OASDI) also known as?

social security

68
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One becomes eligible for Social Security disability benefits after having been disabled for:

5 months

69
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The amount of monthly disability benefits payable under Social Security is affected by which of the following factors?

Amount of the benefits available from other sources

70
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Which of these is NOT a source of funding for Social Security benefits?

federal government

71
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What is required for limited benefit policies?

A Notice to Insured stating it is a Limited Benefit Policy

72
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Why do people choose to purchase critical illness insurance coverage?

To provide a lump sum upon diagnosis of a critical illness

73
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What is morbidity?

The probability or risk of getting ill or becoming disabled

74
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What type of contract is medical expense insurance?

A reimbursement contract

75
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How does a Point of Service plan combine features of different insurance models?

To combine features of HMO and PPO plans

76
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What is the basic principle behind how HMO plans manage healthcare delivery?

To provide coordinated care through a network of providers

77
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How do PPO plans organize their provider networks and what is their main goal?

To provide flexibility in choosing healthcare providers

78
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What is experience rating used for in group insurance?

To price large group contracts based on prior claims experience

79
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What is required for limited benefit policies?

A Notice to Insured stating it is a Limited Benefit Polic

80
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What is required for individual health insurance contracts?

Evidence of insurability and an application

81
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What is the fundamental goal of Medicare Advantage coverage?

To provide an alternative to Original Medicare with additional benefits

82
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What is a key feature of a short-term medical insurance policy?

It offers limited coverage for a short duration

83
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What is the key characteristic of the 'accidental result' definition?

Only the resulting injury must be unintentional

84
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What is the purpose of a blanket insurance policy?

To cover a group exposed to the same risks

85
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What is the primary purpose of credit disability insurance?

To pay off a loan if the insured becomes disabled

86
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What is the primary purpose of accident insurance?

To provide benefits for accidental injuries or death

87
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What is required for coverage under the accidental means definition?

Both the cause and result must be accidental

88
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What financial purpose does a Flexible Spending Account serve for healthcare expenses?

To allow employees to set aside pre-tax dollars for medical expenses

89
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What is the primary purpose of a dental insurance policy?

To focus on diagnostic and preventive dental care

90
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What protection does vision care insurance primarily offer to subscribers?

To provide coverage for eye exams and corrective lenses

91
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Which type of plan normally includes hospice benefits?

managed care plans

92
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Which of these statements concerning COBRA is correct?

Under COBRA, dependents of employees covered by group plans have the same extension and conversion privileges available to them as the employee

93
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Which of the following statements is true about most Blue Cross/Blue Shield organizations?

non-profits

94
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What is issued to each employee of an employer health plan?

certificate

95
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Under which of the following circumstances will the benefits under COBRA continuation coverage end?

All group health plans are terminated by the employer

96
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The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) gives privacy protection for

health information

97
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The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) gives workers (and their families) whose employment has been terminated the right to:

continue group health benefits

98
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Pre-hospitalization authorization is considered an example of:

managed care

99
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J is covered by an employer-provided group health insurance plan, which covers employees in multiple states. This plan is governed by the laws of which state?

Where the master contract was issued

100
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A departing employee has decided to continue his group coverage through COBRA. Who pays the premium in this situation?

employee