ATC Basics Final Review

According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of:

a. nine regions

b. three service areas

c. eleven FAA primary offices

d. four FAA headquarters divisions

b. three service areas

The air traffic facility that has no direct authority over Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules (VFR) traffic is the

a. Airport Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)

b. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)

c. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

d. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)

c. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a(n)

a. Associate Administrator

b. Vice President

c. Chief Operating Officer

d. Administrator

c. Chief Operating Officer

The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAIDs) for the nation's airways in the National Airspace System (NAS) are

a. marker beacons

b. VOR's/VORTAC's

c. Non Directional Beacons (NDBs)

d. Instrument Landing Systems (ILSs)

b. VOR's/VORTAC's

The primary mission of the Traffic Management System (TMS) is to

a. regulate air traffic procedures

b. balance air traffic demand with system capacity

c. implement the use of state-of-the-art equipment

d. ascertain controller stress and workload

b. balance air traffic demand with system capacity

The operations of the TMS is the responsibility of the

a. Central Altitude Reservation

b. ARTCC Traffic Management Unit (TMU) for each area

c. Air Traffic Manager

d. Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ARTCC)

d. Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ARTCC)

The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to

a. monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives

b. ensure maximum efficiency in the utilization of the total National Airspace System, thereby producing a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic

c. manage the flow of air traffic throughout the National Airspace System to achieve optimum use of the navigable airspace and minimize the effect of air traffic delays

d. manage the flow of tower traffic by ensuring that traffic demand does not exceed operationally minimal levels of traffic

a. monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives

The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to

a. prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic

b. provide traffic advisories

c. monitor holding patterns

d. advise pilots of altitude deviations of 300 feet or more

a. prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic

Which Statement is not correct concerning the provision of additional services?

a. Providing additional services is optional on the part of the controller.

b. Additional services are required when the work situation permits.

c. Traffic advisories, weather information, and holding pattern surveillance are all types of additional services.

d. Ability to provide additional services may be limited by higher priority duties and controller workload.

a. Providing additional services is optional on the part of the controller.

When considering the duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to

a. coordinating

b. issuing traffic

c. separating aircraft

d. vectoring

c. separating aircraft

Nonradar separation is used in preference to radar separation when

a. an operational advantage will be gained

b. the aircraft is not transponder equipped

c. secondary radar is out of service

d. controller is not radar qualified

a. an operational advantage will be gained

The facility primarily responsible for conducting prior briefings is the

a. ATCT

b. ARTCC

c. ATCSCC

d. AFSS

d. AFSS

Which position in the Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) records and disseminates Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) summaries?

a. Weather Observer

b. Broadcast

c. Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator

d. Preflight

b. Broadcast

Which of the following duties is not the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower?

a. Operating communication equipment

b. Processing and forwarding flight plan information

c. Compiling statistical data

d. Issuing clearances and ensuring accuracy of readback

c. Compiling statistical data

Of the following, which position in the tower ensures separation?

a. Local Control

b. Clearance Delivery

c. Flight Data

d. Tower Associate

a. Local Control

The ATC facility that provides air traffic control services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight is

a. ATCT

b. AFSS

c. TRACON

d. ARTCC

d. ARTCC

The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include accepting handoffs is the __________ position.

a. Radar Coordinator

b. Radar Associate

c. Radar

d. Radar Flight Data

d. Radar Flight Data

In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a sector?

a. Facility Manager

b. Radar Position

c. Radar Associate Position

d. Radar Team

d. Radar Team

A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway

a. 0

b. 1

c. 3

d. 36

d. 36

Markings which consist of pairs of three, then two, and then one rectangular bar(s) on each side of the runway centerline, 500 feet apart, identify the

a. threshold

b. runway edge

c. touchdown zone

d. touchdown aim point

c. touchdown zone

What runway marking extends the full-length pavement area?

a. Runway side stripes

b. Dashed side stripes

c. Runway centerlines

d. Dashed centerlines

a. Runway side stripes

A(n) _______ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and beginning at the non-landing portion to the threshold bar.

a. stabilized area

b. abandoned runway

c. relocated threshold

d. displaced threshold

d. displaced threshold

A taxiway ______ is identified by a continuous yellow line.

a. holding line

b. parking area

c. centerline

d. closed for repair

c. centerline

What color are taxiway edge lights?

a. white

b. amber

c. blue

d. red

c. blue

_______ are designed to emit light to help pilots identify airports.

a. Runway End Identifier Lights

b. Airport beacons

c. Runway edge lights

d. In-runway lights

b. Airport beacons

Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lights System (RCLS) are two types of

a. Runway End Identifier Lights

b. Taxiway lights

c. In-runway lights

d. Runway edge lights

c. In-runway lights

_______ consists of a pair of synchronized white flashing strobe lights located laterally on each side of the runway.

a. Airport beacons

b. Taxiway lights

c. Runway edge lights

d. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)

d. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)

All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area EXCEPT:

a. Loading passengers

b. Landing

c. Maintenance

d. Parking

b. Landing

At airports with an operating control tower, clearance is required to separate in all areas EXCEPT

a. Runways

b. Taxiways

c. Non-movement areas

d. Heliport/helipad

c. Non-movement areas

The minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL600 is ____ feet.

a. 10,000

b. 5,000

c. 2,000

d. 1,000

b. 5,000

The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL410 is _____ feet.

a. 5,000

b. 2,000

c. 1,000

d. 4,000

c. 1,000

Two thousand feet vertical separation is always required for IFR flight above _____ to FL600.

a. FL410

b. FL290

c. FL240

d. FL180

a. FL410

To apply the lateral NONRADAR departure divergence rule, departing aircraft must be assigned specified headings which diverge by at least _____ degrees.

a. 15

b. 30

c. 45

d. 60

c. 45

Radar separation at or above FL600 requires _____ miles separation between aircraft.

a. 3

b. 5

c. 10

d. 20

c. 10

Standard radar separation provided by an en route facility between two aircraft at FL270 is _____ miles.

a. 3

b. 5

c. 10

d. 20

b. 5

Minimum vertical separation below an aircraft which is dumping fuel is ______ feet.

a. 4,000

b. 2,000

c. 1,000

d. 500

b. 2,000

When two aircraft are departing the same runway, the tower controller must ensure that the second aircraft does not begin its takeoff roll until the first aircraft has crossed the departure end of the runway or turned to avoid a conflict.

a. True

b. False

a. True

To clear aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude, you must ensure that all

a. aircraft are cleared to make right turns

b. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap

c. leg lengths are specified in minutes

d. aircraft are using the same NAVAID to hold from

b. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap

The standard minimum longitudinal non-radar separation between two aircraft using DME is ____ minutes or ____ miles.

10 mins or 20 miles

The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL280 is ____ feet.

a. 5,000

b. 2,000

c. 1,000

d. 4,000

c. 1,000

Airmen's information is disseminated via Aeronautical Charts and

a. satellite communications

b. Facility Directives

c. flight information publications

d. FAA Orders

c. flight information publications

Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid?

a. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid

b. Center in whose area the outage occurs

c. Terminal in whose area the outage occurs

d. Flight Service Station

a. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid

Classification and dissemination of NOTAMs is the responsibility of

a. the National Flight Data Center

b. ARTCCs

c. FSSs

d. the originating facility

c. FSSs

Responsibility for validating NOTAM data and operating the National NOTAM System belongs to

a. NAS

b. NFDC

c. ARTCCs

d. FSSs

b. NFDC

Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?

a. Airport manager/operator

b. Tower controller

c. Airport maintenance officer

d. Flight service specialist

a. Airport manager/operator

A NOTAM that is locally disseminated is classified as a

a. NOTAM D

b. NOTAM M

c. NOTAM L

d. NOTAM C

c. NOTAM L

What is a radar-based system that uses both a ground based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder?

a. Primary Radar

b. Airport Radar

c. Secondary Radar

d. Global Position Radar

c. Secondary Radar

A radio detection device which provides information on the range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects, defines which of the following?

a. Transponder

b. Radar

c. Nondirectional beacon

d. VORTAC

b. Radar

Which radar system relies on reflected radio signals and does NOT require cooperative equipment in aircraft?

a. Primary Radar

b. Secondary Radar

c. Airport Radar

d. Positive Radar

a. Primary Radar

What are two types of radar jamming?

a. Position and passive

b. Action and active

c. Precise and passive

d. Passive and active

d. Passive and active

Name the electronic device that permits radar presentations only from targets in motion

a. Anomalous Propagation

b. Moving Target Indicator

c. Primary Radar

d. Linear Polarization

b. Moving Target Indicator

Which radar feature reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation?

a. Circular Polarization

b. Linear Polarization

c. Passive Radar

d. Inversion

a. Circular Polarization

What causes anomalous propagation clutter on primary radar systems?

a. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal

b. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal

c. Warm air over cold air deflecting the radar signal

d. Cold air over warm air reflecting the radar signal

b. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal

What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?

a. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal

b. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal

c. Warm air over cold air deflecting the radar signal

d. Cold air over warm air reflecting the radar signal

c. Warm air over cold air deflecting the radar signal

The primary radar clutter caused by dropping large amounts of shredded foil is called ______ jamming.

a. active

b. inactive

c. passive

d. static

c. passive

What is secondary radar interference caused by an improperly adjusted transponder operating near to the antenna called?

a. Ring around

b. Anomalous propagation

c. Range interference

d. Inversion

a. Ring around

Which of the following is an advantage of a Secondary Radar System?

a. Displays weather echoes

b. ONLY displays aircraft with transponders

c. Displays are NOT degraded by weather echoes or ground clutter

d. Signal strength is affected by aircraft orientation

c. Displays are NOT degraded by weather echoes or ground clutter

Match:

Broadcasts interrogator transmission _____

Processes transponder replies and forwards data to the radar display ______

Ground-based transmitter ______

Airborne receiver/transmitter ______

Electronic presentation of radar derived information ______

a. transponder

b. radar display

c. interrogator

d. antenna

e. decoder

Broadcasts interrogator transmission: antenna

Processes transponder replies and forwards data to the radar display decoder

Ground-based transmitter interrogator

Airborne receiver/transmitter transponder

Electronic presentation of radar derived information radar display

When used in Orders 7110.10, 7110.65, and 7210.3, the word "shall" means that the procedure is

a. recommended

b. optional

c. approved

d. mandatory

d. mandatory

When used in Orders 7110.10, 7110.65, and 7210.3, the word "should" means that the procedure is

a. recommended

b. optional

c. approved

d. mandatory

a. recommended

Revised, reprinted, or new pages in Orders 7110.10, 7110.65, and 7210.3 are indicated by bold

a. asterisks

b. horizontal lines

c. vertical lines

d. stars

c. vertical lines

Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers?

a. Order 7210.3

b. Order 7110.65

c. Aeronautical Information Manual

d. Terminal Phraseology Guide

b. Order 7110.65

When used in Orders 7110.10, 7110.65, and 7210.3, the word "may" means that the procedure is

a. recommended

b. approved

c. optional

d. mandatory

c. optional

Which document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities?

a. Order 7110.10

b. Order 7210.3

c. Aeronautical Information Manual

d. Terminal Phraseology Guide

b. Order 7210.3

In which document would you find items concerning pilot's health and medical facts, factors affecting flight safety, and accident reporting?

a. Order 7110.10

b. Order 7210.3

c. Aeronautical Information Manual

d. Terminal Phraseology Guide

c. Aeronautical Information Manual

Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issues by Washington Headquarters?

a. GANOT

b. GENOT

c. GENNOT

d. GNOT

b. GENOT

What contraction is used to identify Regional Notices?

a. RENOT

b. RANOT

c. RNTE

d. RENIT

a. RENOT

What document is used to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive to avoid having instructions scattered among several directives?

a. Order 7110.65

b. Notices

c. Supplements

d. Changes

c. Supplements

Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by flight service specialists?

a. Order 7210.3

b. Order 7110.10

c. Aeronautical Information Manual

d. Terminal Phraseology Guide

b. Order 7110.10

Which document contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA?

a. Order 7340.2

b. Order 7110.65

c. Aeronautical Information Manual

d. Order 7350.7

a. Order 7340.2

Which document lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA?

a. Order 7340.1

b. Order 7110.65

c. Aeronautical Information Manual

d. Order 7350.8

d. Order 7350.8

Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures?

a. Order 7340.1

b. Order 7110.65

c. Aeronautical Information Manual

d. Order 7350.7

c. Aeronautical Information Manual

The addition, deletion, or modification of information or instructions within an order are made through a(n)

a. Change

b. Notice

c. Supplement

d. Amendment

a. Change

Temporary directions or one-time announcements are made through

a. Changes

b. Notices

c. Supplements

d. Amendments

b. Notices

When used in Orders 7110.10, 7110.65, and 7210.3, the word "will" means

a. recommended

b. not a requirement for application of a procedure

c. optional

d. mandatory

b. not a requirement for application of a procedure

The purpose of an LOA is to supplement established operational procedures for ____ use.

a. regional

b. intrafacility

c. interfacility

d. military

c. interfacility

The purposes of SOPs are to provide guidelines for _____ use.

a. regional

b. intrafacility

c. interfacility

d. military

b. intrafacility

Defines coordination procedures between two air traffic facilities.

LOA or SOP

LOA

Defines coordination procedures between internal operational positions.

LOA or SOP

SOP

Defines coordination procedures between AFSS Inflight and ARTCC Radar Associate positions.

LOA or SOP

LOA

Defines responsibilities between an air traffic control facility and the Airport Manager.

LOA or SOP

LOA

Describes operating position/sector.

LOA or SOP

SOP

Defines coordination procedures between two control towers within the same approach control airspace.

LOA or SOP

LOA

Establishes local stripmarking procedures.

LOA or SOP

SOP

Delegates the responsibility for ATC services to the tower, approach control, and the ARTCC.

LOA or SOP

LOA

The lower limit of Class B airspace is

a. 1,200 feet AGL

b. 1,200 feet MSL

c. 1,500 feet AGL

d. the surface

d. the surface

What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace?

a. FL450

b. 18,000 MSL

c. 2,500 feet above airport elevation

d. 3,500 AGL

c. 2,500 feet above airport elevation

The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is

a. up to but not including FL450

b. FL450

c. up to but not including FL600

d. FL600

d. FL600

A Prohibited Area is identified by the letter _____, dash, and a number.

a. R

b. M

c. P

d. W

c. P

A Warning Area is established beyond _____ NM from the coast of the United States.

a. 1

b. 3

c. 5

d. 12

b. 3

A Military Operations Area consists of airspace of defined dimensions established for the purpose of

a. separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic

b. restricting VFR flights

c. providing airspace in the event of national emergencies

d. protecting military airports

a. separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic

What airspace contains federal airways?

a. Class A

b. Class C

c. Class E

d. Class G

c. Class E

What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower?

a. Class B

b. Class C

c. Class D

d. Class E

b. Class C

Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as ______ airports.

a. controlled

b. Class E

c. Special Use

d. Class G

c. Special Use

Generally extends upward to 10,000 feet MSL

a. Class A

b. Class B

c. Class C

d. Class D

b. Class B

VFR aircraft need to receive a clearance from ATC to enter this airspace

a. Class A

b. Class B

c. Class C

d. Class D

b. Class B

Requires all aircraft to be IFR

a. Class A

b. Class B

c. Class C

d. Class D

a. Class A

No transponder is required

a. Class A

b. Class B

c. Class C

d. Class D

d. Class D

VFR aircraft are separated only from IFR aircraft

a. Class A

b. Class B

c. Class C

d. Class D

b. Class B

The upper limit of class G airspace is

a. 1200 AGL

b. 1200 MSL

c. the base of the overlying airspace

d. the base of Class E airspace

c. the base of the overlying airspace