NCCT Admin Duties

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109 Terms

1
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Is an appointment record considered legal documentation?

Yes; record visits, cancellations, and no-shows accurately.

2
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How should an error on a paper appointment book be corrected?

Single line through it; document correction and details, never correction fluid.

3
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What does NS mean in an appointment record?

No-show.

4
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What is open-hours scheduling?

Walk-ins seen generally in order of arrival, except emergencies.

5
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What is the main drawback of open-hours scheduling?

Long patient waits and possible provider downtime.

6
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What is time-specified or stream scheduling?

Each patient gets an individual time slot.

7
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What is wave scheduling?

Several patients booked at the beginning of a time block.

8
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What scheduling method fits three patients booked at the same time?

Wave scheduling (the study guide's exam example).

9
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What is modified-wave scheduling?

Appointments early in a block, with later catch-up time.

10
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What is double-booking?

Two or more patients booked for the same slot.

11
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What is cluster scheduling?

Group similar visits at the same part of a day or week.

12
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What is advance scheduling?

Book appointments weeks or months ahead.

13
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What is combination scheduling?

Use more than one scheduling method.

14
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What is a scheduling matrix?

Provider calendar with appointment slots and blocked times.

15
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How long is a typical minor office visit in the guide?

Often about 15 minutes.

16
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How long might a physical exam or procedure appointment take?

Often 30 to 60 minutes.

17
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What should a specialist referral include?

Patient information, reason for referral, and requested follow-up.

18
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What does an in-network specialist mean?

A specialist participating in the patient's insurance network.

19
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What does S mean in SOAP?

Subjective: patient-reported symptoms and concerns.

20
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What does O mean in SOAP?

Objective: measurable findings, vitals, and test results.

21
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What does A mean in SOAP?

Assessment: provider's impression or diagnosis.

22
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What does P mean in SOAP?

Plan: treatment, education, orders, and follow-up.

23
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Which SOAP section includes a patient's report of pain?

Subjective (S).

24
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Which SOAP section includes a measured blood pressure?

Objective (O).

25
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Which SOAP section includes the provider's diagnosis?

Assessment (A).

26
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Which SOAP section includes planned medication and follow-up?

Plan (P).

27
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What is the most common paper filing system in the guide?

Alphabetic: last name, then first name and middle initial.

28
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What is numeric medical record filing?

Assign a patient number; use a master name-number index.

29
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What is an EHR?

Electronic health record.

30
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What does HITECH relate to in the guide?

Federal promotion of electronic health record adoption.

31
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What is a web-based EHR?

Record system hosted online and maintained by a vendor.

32
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What is a fully integrated EHR system?

Links records, scheduling, lab results, medications, and billing.

33
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What is point-of-care data entry?

Entering patient information during the encounter using a device.

34
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What does COW stand for in office technology?

Computer on Wheels.

35
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What are demographics in a patient database?

Patient identifying and contact information.

36
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Which code system stores diagnosis information in a database?

ICD-10-CM.

37
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Which code system stores office procedure information?

CPT.

38
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What are transactions in a medical office database?

Charges, payments, and adjustments.

39
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What is full-block business letter formatting?

All letter contents left aligned.

40
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What is modified-block letter formatting?

Date and closing centered; other content left aligned.

41
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What is semi-block letter formatting?

Date/close centered; each paragraph first line indented.

42
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What is hanging-indentation letter formatting?

First line left; later lines of each paragraph indented.

43
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What is simplified letter formatting?

All content left aligned; no greeting or complimentary close.

44
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What is a standard business envelope called?

No. 10 envelope.

45
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What does MCO stand for?

Managed Care Organization.

46
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What does HMO stand for?

Health Maintenance Organization.

47
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What does EPO stand for?

Exclusive Provider Organization.

48
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What is a key feature of an EPO?

Usually requires in-network care, with emergency exceptions.

49
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What is a key feature of an HMO?

Managed provider network and member premiums/copays.

50
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What is a closed-panel HMO?

The HMO employs its physicians.

51
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What is an open-panel HMO?

The HMO contracts with participating providers.

52
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What is capitation?

Provider payment based on enrolled members, not per visit.

53
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What does PHO stand for?

Physician-Hospital Organization.

54
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What is a PHO?

Hospital and physicians contract together with managed care plans.

55
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What does Medicare generally cover?

Eligible older adults and certain people with disabilities.

56
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Who administers Medicare?

Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).

57
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What does Medicare Part A generally cover?

Inpatient hospital care and qualifying facility/home services.

58
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What does Medicare Part B generally cover?

Physician/outpatient services and certain medical equipment.

59
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What is Medigap?

Private supplemental insurance for Medicare beneficiaries.

60
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What does accepting Medicare assignment mean?

Accept the Medicare-approved amount as full payment for the service.

61
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What is the usual Medicare Part B approved-charge split in the guide?

Typically 80% Medicare and 20% patient, after deductible.

62
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What is Medicaid?

Federal-state funded health coverage with state-dependent eligibility.

63
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If a patient has Medicare and Medicaid, which is generally billed first?

Medicare.

64
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Who may qualify for TRICARE in the guide?

Eligible military families, retirees, dependents, and some survivors.

65
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Who may qualify for CHAMPVA in the guide?

Certain families or survivors of veterans with qualifying disabilities.

66
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Can a person be covered by both TRICARE and CHAMPVA?

The guide states no.

67
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What is a self-insured health plan?

Employer/organization funds health claims using its own plan money.

68
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What does UCR stand for in medical billing?

Usual, Customary, and Reasonable charges.

69
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What does ICD-10-CM identify?

Diagnoses, illnesses, injuries, and reasons for care.

70
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What does CPT identify?

Professional medical services and procedures.

71
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What does HCPCS Level II commonly identify?

Supplies, equipment, and services not described by CPT.

72
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Which code system should identify hypertension on a claim?

ICD-10-CM.

73
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Which code system identifies an office visit or EGD service?

CPT.

74
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What is the claim form for a physician office visit?

CMS-1500.

75
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What form is used for hospital facility claims?

UB-04, also called CMS-1450.

76
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What does EOB stand for?

Explanation of Benefits; explains how a claim was processed.

77
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What does ABN stand for?

Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage.

78
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What is a clearinghouse in medical billing?

Reviews electronic claims before forwarding to the payer.

79
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What may happen if diagnosis or procedure codes are incorrect?

Claim denial or delayed payment.

80
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What is unbundling in medical billing?

Separately charging items that should be included together; can be fraudulent.

81
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What is a bundled payment?

One payment for an episode of care.

82
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How many digits are in a CPT code?

Five digits.

83
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Which CPT category commonly starts with 99?

Evaluation and Management.

84
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Which CPT category commonly starts with 7?

Radiology.

85
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Which CPT category commonly starts with 8?

Pathology and Laboratory.

86
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Which CPT category commonly starts with 0?

Anesthesia.

87
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Which CPT category commonly starts with 1-6?

Surgery.

88
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What type of codes does ICD-10-CM use?

Alphanumeric diagnosis codes.

89
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What is the purpose of an X placeholder in ICD-10-CM?

Holds a position for the required code structure.

90
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What is the purpose of the seventh character on some ICD-10-CM codes?

Adds encounter or other required detail.

91
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Which coding system is for inpatient hospital procedures?

ICD-10-PCS.

92
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Which codes does the review expect for general procedure prior authorization?

ICD-10-CM diagnosis + CPT procedure.

93
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Which codes does the review expect for medical equipment prior authorization?

ICD-10-CM diagnosis + HCPCS Level II.

94
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Do all outpatient diagnostic tests need prior authorization?

No; requirements depend on the test, plan, and payer.

95
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What does the C in CHEDDAR stand for?

Chief complaint.

96
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What does the H in CHEDDAR stand for?

History.

97
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What does the E in CHEDDAR stand for?

Examination.

98
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What does the first D in CHEDDAR stand for?

Details.

99
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What does the second D in CHEDDAR stand for?

Drugs and dosages.

100
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What does the A in CHEDDAR stand for?

Assessment.