Ms K CCMA

How many primary digits does a CPT code consist of?

A. Two digits

B. Three digits

C. Five digits

D. Seven digits

C. Five digits

An MA has given a patient an injection, and the patient begins developing an itchy rash with pink lesions. Which of the following terms should the assistant use when documenting this occurrence?

A. Anaphylaxis

B. Rhinitis

C. Urticaria

D. Erythema

C. Urticaria (hives)

Redness of the skin no lesions

Erythema

When should the code on glucose cuvettes be compared to the code on the glucometer?

A. Before a patient is tested

B. After a new package of cuvettes is opened

C. Following an error code

D. At the beginning of the shift

A. Before a patient is tested

Which of the following is the purpose of Category II codes in procedural coding?

A. Tracks provider performance measures

B. Indicates special circumstances

C. Works as a temporary code

D. Identifies preventive measures

A. Tracks provider performance measures

What do the procedural code modifiers do?

Indicate special circumstances

A pulse oximeter may inaccurately measure low oxygen saturation under which circumstance?

A. Anemia

B. Hyperventilation syndrome

C. Cold fingers

D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

C. Cold fingers

A patient begins to faint as an MA is drawing her blood. What should the MA do?

A. Use an ammonia capsule to revive the patient

B. Apply a warm cloth to the patient’s forehead

C. Have the patient remain in the office for 5 minutes

D. Position the patient flat on her back

D. Position the patient flat on her back

When administering eye ointment to a patient, which action should the MA take?

A. Hold the ointment tube parallel to and above the patient’s eye

B. Apply a thin ribbon of ointment along the conjunctival sac

C. Apply the ointment from the outer canthus to the inner canthus

D. Have the patient keep her eye open after application

B. Apply a thin ribbon of ointment along the conjunctival sac

Normal female hemoglobin

12-16g/dL

Normal male hemoglobin

13.5-17.5g/dL

How does an antitussive work?

A. It reduces nasal membrane swelling

B. Helps with coughing up mucus

C. Relieves allergy symptoms

D. Suppresses the cough reflex

D. Suppresses the cough reflex

What medication reduces nasal membrane swelling?

Decongestant

Normal female hematocrit

36-46%

Normal male hematocrit

41-53%

Normal creatinine

0.6-1.3mg/dL

Normal sodium

135-145mEq/L

Normal potassium

3.5-5.0mEq/L

Normal fasting glucose

70-99mg/dL

According to OSHA’s guidelines, blood-soiled gauze should be disposed of in which of the following?

A. Red biohazard bag

B. Sharps container

C. Trash can with leak-proof liner

D. Purple medical waste container

A. Red biohazard bag

Normal adult respirations

12-20 breaths/min

Normal adult pulse

60-100 beats/min

Which of the following should be included in the appointment calendar when scheduling a patient?

A. Diagnosis code

B. Daytime phone number

C. Date of birth

D. Patients identification number

B. Daytime phone number

Blood pressure for 1-3 years

Systolic: 90-105

Diastolic: 55-70

Blood pressure for 3 to 6 years

Systolic: 95-110

Diastolic: 60-75

Blood pressure for 6 to 12 years

Systolic: 100-120

Diastolic:60-75

When preparing a patient for Holter monitoring, which of the following actions should be taken?

A. Vigorously dry the patient’s skin prior to electrode placement

B. Apply the electrodes while patient is in standing position

C. Ensure tension is on the lead wires after electrodes are in place

D. Wash patients skin with soap and water prior to electrode placement

A. Vigorously dry the patient’s skin prior to electrode placement

Pulse for 1-2 months

100-180 beats/min

Pulse for 1-2 years

98-100 beats/min

Pulse for 3-5 years

80-120 beats/min

Pulse for 6-15 years

75-118 beats/min

Which of the following can be signed by a MA?

A. A medical report for an insurance carrier

B. A referral letter for a patient to an outside provider

C. A letter containing medical advice to the parents of a child

D. Notification letter to a patient about surgery arrangements

D. Notification letter to a patient about surgery arrangements

Which of the following notifies the provider of a claim denial by an insurance company?

A. Remittance advice

B. Coordination of benefits

C. Eligibility for insurance

D. CMS-1500 claim form

A. Remittance advice

Information the patient or family member reports in their own words (such as chief complaints, symptoms, duration, and medical history)

Subjective

Measurable, observable findings recorded by the clinician or medical assistant (such as vital signs, height, weight, lab results, and physical exam data)

Objective

The medical diagnosis or clinical impression of what is happening, determined strictly by the physician, nurse practitioner, or physician assistant

Assessment

The course of action, including prescribed medications, diagnostic tests, specialty referrals, patient education, and follow-up instructions

Plan

Which of the following instructions should an assistant give regarding transdermal patch use?

A. “Only sponge baths are allowed while wearing the patch”

B. “Make sure to rotate the patch placement to avoid skin irritation”

C. “Keep all used patches for inspection at your next appointment”

D. “Apply each new patch at a different time during the day”

B. “Make sure to rotate the patch placement to avoid skin irritation”

When using the SOAP format which of the following would be found in the assessment section?

A. Family history

B. Laboratory results

C. Chief complaint

D. Diagnosis

D. Diagnosis

What does RACE stand for

• R – Rescue (or Remove): Help or move anyone in immediate danger away from the hazard, provided it is safe for you to do so.

• A – Alarm (or Alert): Activate the building's fire alarm system and call emergency services (such as 911).

• C – Confine (or Contain): Close doors and windows to slow the spread of fire and smoke, without locking them.

• E – Extinguish or Evacuate: Use a portable fire extinguisher only if the fire is small, you are trained, and you have a clear escape route; otherwise, evacuate the building immediately.

When controlling bleeding, the assistant should do which of the following?

A. Apply layers of sterile gauze

B. Sterilize her hands

C. Suture the wounds

D. Flush the wound with sterile water

A. Apply layers of sterile gauze

When drawing blood, when should the tourniquet be removed?

A. After the needle is removed

B. After a flash of blood is seen in the hub of the first tube

C. Within 1 minute of application

D. Between 2 and 3 minutes after application

C. Within 1 minute of application

An EKG tracing shows ventricular fibrillation on an unconscious patient. What action should you take first?

A. Notify the provider of the arrest

B. Call for help and begin CPR

C. Get automated external defibrillator

D. Administer oxygen

B. Call for help and begin CPR

When preparing a CMS-1500 form, which of the following is required on the form?

A. Physical address where the injury occurred

B. Patient’s health savings account number

C. Current procedural terminology code

D. Patient’s medical record number

C. Current procedural terminology code

Pinworms are which of the following microorganisms?

A. Fungi

B. Bacteria

C. Protozoa

D. Helminths

D. Helminths

When writing a business correspondence using the simplified letter style, which of the following features should you use?

A. A complimentary closing

B. A subject line in all capital letters

C. Indented paragraphs in the body of the letter

D. Center aligned dateline and salutation

B. A subject line in all capital letters

Pyloric stenosis is a condition of which of the following body systems?

A. Urinary

B. Gastrointestinal

C. Nervous

D. Cardiovascular

B. Gastrointestinal

What is stenosis?

Narrowing

You’re reviewing a Medicare claim denial and realize the charges exceed the usual, customary, and reasonable fees. Which action should you take?

A. Leave the unpaid balance on the record until the end of the revenue cycle

B. Wait until an overpayment of the approximate amount balances the deficit

C. Adjust the patient’s account to reflect no unpaid charges and write off the balance

D. Request payment at the point of service during the next patient’s visit

C. Adjust the patient’s account to reflect no unpaid charges and write off the balance

Underweight BMI

Less than 18.5

Normal weight BMI

18.5-24.9

Overweight BMI

25-29.9

Obese BMI

30-34.9

Extremely obese BMI

Greater than 35

Which of the following can be used for an orthopedic exam?

A. Goniometer

B. Hemostat

C. Retractor

D. Tonometer

A. Goniometer (measures joint movement)

When you need to remove all living microorganisms from an instrument, which of the following methods should you use?

A. Disinfection

B. Sanitization

C. Sterilization

D. Ultrasonic

C. Sterilization

Reduces number of microorganisms

Sanitization

Kills some but not all microorganisms

Disinfectant

Which of the following conditions refer to curvature of the thoracic spine?

A. Lordosis

B. Subluxation

C. Kyphosis

D. Scoliosis

C. Kyphosis

Curvature of lumbar spine

lordosis

Curvature of lateral spine

Scoliosis

Which of the following forms indicate when a patient needs a referral and/or follow up appointments?

A. Encounter form

B. CMS-1500 claim form

C. OSHA form 301

D. Informed consent

A. Encounter form

Oxycodone is which type of medication?

A. Oxycodone is a Schedule I controlled substance and has a low potential for abuse

B. Oxycodone is a Schedule V controlled substance and has a high potential for abuse

C. Oxycodone is a Schedule IV controlled substance and has a low potential for abuse

D. Oxycodone is a Schedule II controlled substance and has a high potential for abuse

D. Oxycodone is a schedule II controlled substance and has a high potential for abuse

How many milliliters of medication are in a tabelspoon?

A. 15mL

B. 5mL

C. 30mL

D. 2.5mL

A. 15mL

Pediculosis is what type of infection?

A. Fungal

B. Bacterial

C. Parasitic

D. Helminthic

C. Parasitic (pediculosis = lice)

Normal urine specific gravity

1.005-1.030

Specific urine gravity below 1.005

urine is diluted

Specific urine gravity above 1.030

Urine is very concentrated

Which of the following appointment methods allows for flexibility for the most consistant patient flow?

A. Double booking

B. Cluster booking

C. Wave scheduling

D. Stream scheduling

C. Wave scheduling

When using a POMR (problem oriented medical record) where should you enter the patient’s health history and lab results?

A. Problem list

B. Database

C. Progress notes

D. Diagnostic and treatment plan

B. Database

A patients eyes are moving back and forth in a constant, involuntary manner. What finding should this be documented as?

A. Strabismus

B. Nystagmus

C. Conjunctivitis

D. Hordeolum

B. Nystagmus

Cross eyed

Strabismus

Stye on eyelid

Hordeolum

Normal blood glucose

70-110mg/dL

Which of the following terms should be documented when a patient reports that she saw blood in her vomit?

A. Melena

B. Hemoptysis

C. Hematuria

D. Hematemesis

D. Hematemesis

Vomit that looks like coffee grounds

Melena

Blood in urine

Hematauria

Coughing up blood

Hemoptysis

Which of the following stages of the cardiac cycle represents ventricular depolarization?

A. T wave

B. ST segment

C. QRS complex

D. P wave

C. QRS complex

T wave

ventricular repolarization

P wave

Atrial depolarization