HSTP Unit 2

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240 Terms

1
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What is a healthcare delivery system?

The complete framework through which care is accessed, provided, coordinated, and funded.

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Who are considered professionals in healthcare delivery systems?

Trained healthcare staff such as physicians, nurses, and medical assistants.

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What types of facilities are included in healthcare delivery systems?

Hospitals, urgent care centers, primary care and specialty clinics, mobile health clinics, rehab centers, hospice, skilled nursing facilities, and long-term care centers.

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What are the goals of healthcare delivery systems?

Improve access to care and quality of care, enhance patient experience, and reduce per capita costs.

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What does 'patient-centered care' prioritize?

Patient-centered care prioritizes continuity, satisfaction, and active patient engagement in decision-making.

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What is a Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?

A team-based care model led by a primary care provider to ensure comprehensive, continuous, and coordinated care.

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What does holistic care refer to in a PCMH?

Treating the patient as a whole person, addressing physical, mental, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.

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What is inpatient care?

Medical treatment provided to a patient who is formally admitted to a healthcare facility and requires an overnight stay.

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What is outpatient care?

Medical services provided to a patient who receives treatment without being admitted for an overnight stay.

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What is the purpose of urgent care centers?

To provide immediate, non-emergency care for acute injuries and illnesses that require prompt attention.

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What do primary care clinics focus on?

Routine wellness, preventative care, health screenings, managing chronic conditions, and responding to acute stable injuries or illnesses.

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What are the two types of rehab centers?

Physical rehabilitation centers and addiction or substance abuse rehab facilities.

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What is the focus of hospice care?

Providing palliative treatment, comfort, and emotional support to terminally ill patients with a life expectancy of less than six months.

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What is palliative care?

Relieving pain, symptoms, and stress to improve quality of life for patients and their families, regardless of age or life stage.

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What are skilled nursing facilities?

Inpatient residential care facilities providing 24-hour medical supervision and skilled nursing care.

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What is the role of third-party payers?

Organizations other than the patient or healthcare provider that pay or insure medical expenses on a person's behalf.

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What does Medicare cover?

Health insurance for seniors 65+ and disabled individuals, covering hospital, outpatient, and prescription drug services.

18
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What is Medicaid?

A program that provides health coverage for low-income individuals, funded by federal and state governments.

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What is the difference between in-network and out-of-network providers?

In-network providers have contracts with insurance companies for discounted rates, while out-of-network providers do not, leading to higher costs.

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What are Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs)?

Managed care models requiring members to select a primary care provider and obtain referrals for specialists.

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What are Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs)?

Managed care models allowing members to visit any provider directly without referrals, often at higher out-of-pocket costs.

22
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What are employer contributions in health insurance?

The portion of an employee's health insurance premium paid directly by their company.

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What is an insurance premium?

The fixed, recurring fee paid to a health insurance company to maintain active coverage.

24
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What is a deductible in health insurance?

The specified amount a patient must pay out-of-pocket for covered medical services before insurance begins paying.

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What are copayments?

Fixed, flat dollar amounts that a patient pays out-of-pocket at the time of a medical service or visit.

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What is a copayment?

A fixed, flat dollar amount that a patient pays out-of-pocket at the time of a medical service or visit.

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What is coinsurance?

A percentage-based split of the total covered medical cost that the patient pays after meeting their deductible.

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What does max out-of-pocket refer to?

The absolute most a patient will have to pay for covered, in-network medical services during the year.

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What is private pay in healthcare?

A billing model where the patient pays the provider directly for medical services, bypassing insurance coverage.

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What is the fee-for-service payment model?

A model that pays providers based on the volume of services delivered, reimbursing a set fee for each service regardless of outcomes.

31
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What are incentive models in healthcare?

Payment models that tie financial compensation to the quality, efficiency, and effectiveness of care.

32
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What is an Accountable Care Organization (ACO)?

A voluntary network of healthcare providers that coordinate care for a specific patient population, sharing in financial savings if they meet quality benchmarks.

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What is the first step in the patient check-in process?

Verifying the patient's full name and date of birth.

34
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What distinguishes new patients from established patients?

New patients have never received services from the practice or it's been over three years since their last visit.

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What is the purpose of patient portals?

To allow patients to access their health records, view visit notes, educational materials, lab results, and schedule follow-up appointments.

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What information is included in the demographics form during check-in?

Full legal name, date of birth, current mailing address, phone number, marital status, and insurance information.

37
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What is the Assignment of Benefits form?

A form that allows the office to bill insurance directly for reimbursement.

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What does the Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) explain?

It explains patients' rights under HIPAA and must be included in the patient's chart.

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What is Protected Health Information (PHI)?

Any health data that can be linked to a specific individual, protected under HIPAA.

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What is an encounter form or 'superbill'?

An itemized charge slip detailing clinical services provided during a patient visit, bridging clinical documentation and financial systems.

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What information is required on the encounter form?

Patient information, provider information, visit specifics, diagnosis codes (ICD-10), procedure codes (CPT/HCPCS), and financial summary.

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What must a provider do after a patient visit regarding the encounter form?

Indicate the level of services provided and sign the form.

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What is the purpose of the Medical Record Release/Authorization form?

To request that a healthcare provider release the patient's medical records to the patient or a third party.

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What is the Confidential Communication Form?

A form that authorizes the organization to communicate with the patient in specified ways and release PHI to designated individuals.

45
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What is the Consent for Treatment?

A form that allows providers to perform diagnostic procedures and necessary medical care.

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What should be done if a patient refuses to sign the NPP?

Document that the patient was provided with a copy of the form and had the content explained.

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What is the significance of verifying the patient's insurance information during check-in?

To ensure accurate billing and prevent fraud by matching the patient's medical record with their insurance plan.

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What is the role of the medical assistant (MA) during patient check-in?

To confirm demographic information and assist in the check-in process for both new and established patients.

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What must the provider do before a patient checks out?

Sign the encounter form.

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How is the encounter form typically signed?

Electronically, but some facilities still use paper forms.

51
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What does the MA do during patient checkout?

Reviews comments such as referrals or the need for follow-up.

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What should the MA assist the patient with during checkout?

Scheduling follow-up appointments, specialist referrals, labs, or imaging.

53
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What is required before sharing patient information with a specialist?

The patient must sign a release of information form.

54
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What should be verified regarding specialist referrals?

That the referral is in-network for the patient.

55
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What is adjudication in the context of patient checkout?

How the payer determines how the claim should be paid based on insurance plan details.

56
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What are the possible adjudication options?

Payment in full, partial payment, pending status, or payment denied.

57
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What is real-time adjudication?

An automated tool for instant reimbursement decisions while the patient is present.

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What does the after visit summary (AVS) contain?

Information about medications, follow-up appointments, provider orders, instructions, and educational resources.

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What should the MA highlight in the AVS?

Any new medications and clarify new medication instructions.

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What is the first step in the patient scheduling process?

Verify the patient's full name, date of birth, and phone number.

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What is the best practice for scheduling acute illness visits?

Schedule patients with same-day appointments.

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What should be done after scheduling an appointment?

Confirm the appointment day and time by repeating it to the patient.

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What is the purpose of a scheduling grid or template?

To outline a provider's availability and block times they're unavailable.

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What is stream scheduling?

A system where each patient has a specific appointment time throughout the day.

65
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What is wave scheduling?

Booking several patients at the same time and seeing them in the order they arrive.

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What is double booking in scheduling?

Scheduling two or more patients for the same time slot, each needing the entire allotted time.

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What should be done if a patient needs to cancel an appointment?

Use the abbreviation 'CAN' for cancel.

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What does 'F/u' stand for in scheduling abbreviations?

Follow-up appointment.

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What is the abbreviation for 'no-show patient'?

N/S.

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What does 'Rx' represent in scheduling abbreviations?

Prescription.

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What is the significance of accuracy in scheduling?

All appointment information must be clear and understandable, as it becomes part of the legal medical record.

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What should be done if follow-up care cannot be coordinated at the time of the visit?

Highlight information about who the patient should call.

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What is the purpose of confirming appointment details with the patient?

To ensure they are aware of the date, time, and any balance due.

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What does 'Pt / pt' stand for?

Patient.

75
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What is the abbreviation for 'electrocardiogram'?

ECG.

76
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What does 'N&V' stand for?

Nausea and vomiting.

77
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What is cluster scheduling?

A method where physicians group similar appointments into scheduled blocks for efficiency.

78
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What is an example of cluster scheduling in pediatrics?

A pediatrician may only offer sports physicals on Mondays and Wednesdays from 1500-1800.

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What is a disadvantage of cluster scheduling?

Limited flexibility in scheduling and may not accommodate patient preferences.

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What are open office hours?

A system where patients are seen in the order they arrive without scheduled appointments.

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What is an advantage of open office hours?

Eliminates the risk of missed or canceled appointments.

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What is a disadvantage of open office hours?

Unpredictable patient volume can lead to long wait times.

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What characterizes routine visits?

They cover a wide variety of simple patient concerns, typically lasting 10-30 minutes.

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What defines acute illness visits?

Visits for patients with rapid onset of unexpected sickness needing same-day appointments.

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What should you advise acutely ill patients who are worked into a full schedule?

They may experience a slight wait but will be seen as soon as possible.

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What types of patients can be seen during emergency visits?

Patients with minor emergencies like severe pain or high fever.

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What should be done for patients with major emergencies?

They should be directed to the emergency room immediately.

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How should staff handle wait times and delays?

Keep patients informed with professional explanations and apologize for delays.

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What is a no-show?

When a patient misses an appointment without calling to cancel.

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What should the MA do when a patient no-shows?

Follow up with the patient, try to reschedule, and document the incident.

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What is the procedure for cancellations?

Patients provide advanced notification and the MA should offer to reschedule.

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What should be done for unexpected visitors?

Assess if they are in distress and inform the provider immediately.

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What is a consultation in medical terms?

When a primary care provider seeks guidance from another physician.

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Who is the referring physician?

The physician who requests a consultation.

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What is a consultant?

The physician who receives the consultation request.

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What should the MA verify before scheduling referrals?

Ensure that consultations and referrals are in-network for insurance coverage.

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What is the sitting position used for?

Physical exams of the head, neck, chest, back, and to ease difficulty breathing.

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What is the prone position used for?

Examinations or surgeries of the neck, back, and to improve oxygenation in critically ill patients.

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What is the supine position used for?

Physical assessments of the anterior body and procedures requiring access to the front.

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What is the lithotomy position commonly used for?

Gynecologic procedures like pelvic exams and childbirth.