complex exam 3

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Last updated 9:00 PM on 10/4/26
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731 Terms

1
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A patient with a brain tumor becomes increasingly difficult to arouse. Earlier the patient was alert and oriented. Which action is the priority?

Perform an immediate focused neurologic assessment

2
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Which assessment finding is most concerning for impending cerebral herniation?

New unilateral fixed, dilated pupil

3
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A patient has BP 188/62, HR 46, and irregular respirations. What should the nurse suspect?

Cushing response from increased ICP

4
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Which position is most appropriate for a patient with increased ICP?

HOB elevated with head and neck midline

5
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Why should extreme hip flexion be avoided in increased ICP?

It may interfere with venous drainage and increase ICP

6
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Which nursing intervention should be questioned for a patient with increased ICP?

Frequent unnecessary stimulation

7
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Which factors can worsen cerebral perfusion or ICP? Select all that apply

Hypoxia

Hypotension

Hypercarbia

Fever

Sharp head rotation

8
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What is the normal ICP range?

0-15 mmHg

9
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Which ICP range is considered elevated?

20-25 mmHg

10
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A patient’s MAP is 82 mmHg and ICP is 24 mmHg. What is the CPP?

58 mmHg

11
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A patient’s ICP increases while MAP remains unchanged. What happens to CPP?

Decreases

12
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Which CPP is below target?

42 mmHg

13
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Why can a benign brain tumor still become life-threatening?

Any expanding intracranial mass can cause edema, increased ICP, decreased CPP, and herniation

14
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A frontal lobe tumor is most likely to produce

Personality/behavior changes and expressive aphasia

15
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A patient with a temporal lobe tumor may demonstrate

Memory/personality changes or receptive aphasia

16
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A cerebellar tumor would most likely affect

Balance and coordination

17
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Which tumor location should make the nurse particularly alert for swallowing and respiratory pattern abnormalities?

Medulla

18
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Dexamethasone is prescribed for a patient with brain tumor. What is its primary purpose in this situation?

Decrease cerebral edema

19
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Which parameters should be monitored during dexamethasone therapy? Select all that apply.

Glucose

Potassium

Infection

GI bleeding

Fluid retention/HTN

20
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Which patient should the nurse see first?

Brain tumor patient with a new fixed pupil and decreased LOC

21
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Which presentation is classic for a ruptured cerebral aneurysm?

Sudden worse headache of my life

22
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Which interventions help reduce rebleeding risk after SAH? Select all that apply.

Quiet environment

BP management

Stool softener

Avoid valsalva

Head midline

23
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Why might a stool softener be prescribed after SAH?

Straining can increase pressure and contribute to rebleeding

24
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A patient is on day 8 after SAH and suddenly develops expressive aphasia and right-sided weakness. What is the priority concern?

Cerebral vasospasm/delayed ischemia

25
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Vasospasm is most likely during

Days 3-12

26
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When does vasospasm risk peak?

Days 7-10

27
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Which medication is emphasized for SAH-related vasospasm?

Nimodipine

28
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Which finding during the vasospasm-risk period requires immediate escalation?

New unilateral weakness

29
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A patient arrives with facial droop and unilateral weakness. What information is most time-sensitive?

Exact last-known well-time

30
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Which assessment should occur rapidly in suspected stroke because it can mimic neurologic dysfunction?

Blood glucose

31
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Why is urgent brain imaging required before assuming ischemic stroke?

Hemorrhage must be excluded

32
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Which sequence best reflects early stroke priorities?

Last-known-well, neurologic assessment/NIHSS, glucose, urgent imaging

33
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Thrombolytic therapy may be considered in appropriate patients within

Up to 4.5 hours

34
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Which finding would make the nurse question thrombolytic eligibility?

BP 192/116 mmHg

35
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Which platelet count is an exclusion?

Less than 100,000/mm3

36
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Which INR is identified as concerning for thrombolytic therapy?

Greater than 1.7

37
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A patient develops a sudden severe headache, vomiting, and a decreased LOC after thrombolytic administration. What should the nurse suspect?

Intracranial hemorrhage

38
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Dysarthria means

Impaired articulation of speech

39
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Aphasia means

Impaired language

40
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Dysphagia means

Impaired swallowing

41
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During an active generalized seizure, which action is appropriate?

Protect the patient from injury and support the airway

42
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Which action is contraindicated during a seizure

Placing an object in the mouth

43
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What is the priority sequence in status epilepticus?

ABCs, terminate seizure, identify/treat cause, prevent recurrence

44
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Which medication is emphasized for initially stopping acute seizure activity?

Lorazepam

45
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Which medication may follow lorazepam for seizure loading/control?

Phenytoin/fosphenytoin

46
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Persistent status epilepticus may require: Select all that apply

Intubation

Continuous EEG

Midazolam

Deeper sedation/anesthesia

Phenobarbital

47
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A GCS of 7 indicates

Severe TBI

48
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Which GCS trend is most concerning?

15, 13, 11

49
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Primary brain injury occurs

At the moment of trauma

50
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The critical-care goal following TBI is largely to

Prevent secondary brain injury

51
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Which conditions contribute to secondary brain injury? Select all that apply.

Hypoxia

Hypotension

Hypercarbia

Fever

Uncontrolled ICP

52
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Which findings suggest a basilar skull fracture? Select all that apply.

Raccoon eyes

Battle sign

CSF rhinorrhea

CSG otorrhea

Halo sign

53
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Which order should the nurse question for suspected basilar skull fracture?

Nasogastric tube insertion

54
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Why are nasal tubes avoided with suspected basilar skull fracture?

Skull-base disruption creates risk associated with nasal instrumentation

55
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A patient with a basilar skull fracture later develops fever, headache, and neck stiffness. What complication should the nurse suspect?

Meningitis

56
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Which statement best distinguishes epidural from subdural bleeding?

Epidural is typically arterial and faster; subdural is typically venous and slower

57
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An older adult taking anticoagulants develops increasing confusion several days after a fall. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

Subdural hematoma

58
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Which finding overrides whether a hematoma is epidural or subdural and demands urgent action?

Declining LOC

59
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Mannitol is prescribed after TBI primarily to

Decrease ICP

60
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Why is infection a concern with invasive ICP monitoring?

The monitoring device creates an invasive route

61
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A TBI patient develops very high urine output and hypernatremia. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

DI

62
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Which phrase best helps distinguish DI?

DI = dry

63
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Which treatment is emphasized for DI?

Vasopressin and fluid replacement

64
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A TBI patient develops hyponatremia and water retention. What should the nurse suspect?

SIADH

65
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Which treatment is emphasized for SIADH?

Fluid restriction with sodium replacement as indicated

66
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A trauma patient may have a cervical spine injury and requires airway opening. Which maneuver should be used?

Jaw-thrust

67
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Why is a high cervical SCI especially dangerous?

It can impair diaphragm function and ventilation

68
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A patient with SCI has flaccid paralysis and loss of motor, sensory, and reflex activity below the lesion. Which condition is most likely?

Spinal shock

69
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Which finding indicates the end of spinal shock?

Return of perianal reflex activity

70
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Which findings characterize neurogenic shock?

Hypotension + bradycardia + hypothermia

71
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Why might tachycardia be absent in neurogenic shock?

Loss of sympathetic tone prevents the usual compensatory response

72
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Which treatments are emphasized for neurogenic shock?

Fluids and vasopressors

73
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Which finding distinguishes neurogenic shock from many other shock states?

Bradycardia despite hypotension

74
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A patient with SCI above T7 develops BP 212/110, HR 48, pounding headache, and facial flushing. What should the nurse suspect?

Autonomic dysreflexia

75
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What is the first action for autonomic dysreflexia?

Sit the patient upright/elevate HOB

76
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After positioning the patient upright, what trigger should be investigated first?

Bladder distention or catheter obstruction

77
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Which can trigger autonomic dysreflexia? Select all that apply.

Bladder distention

Kinked catheter

Bowel impaction

Tight clothing

Pressure injury

78
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Which finding is expected above the lesion during autonomic dysreflexia?

Flushing and sweating

79
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Which patient should the nurse see first?

SCI patient with BP 210/108 and pounding headache

80
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A patient is rescued from a house fire with facial burns, soot around the mouth, and hoarseness. What is the priority?

Prepare for early airway management

81
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Why should the nurse not wait for obvious complete airway obstruction?

Progressive edema can make later intubation difficult

82
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Pulmonary injury following burns may evolve over

24-48 hours

83
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Which findings suggest inhalation injury? Select all that apply.

Facial burns

Soot

Hoarseness

Stridor

Closed-space exposure

84
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Why can conventional pulse oximetry be misleading in carbon monoxide exposure?

It may not accurately reflect carbon monoxide poisoning

85
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Which test is emphasized for suspected carbon monoxide exposure?

Carboxyhemoglobin

86
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Which treatment is emphasized for carbon monoxide exposure?

100% oxygen

87
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Using the Rule of Nines, one entire adult arm equals

9%

88
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The anterior trunk equals

18%

89
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One entire adult leg equals

18%

90
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The perineum equals

1%

91
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The burn-resuscitation formula is

2-4 mL LR x kg x % TBSA

92
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A 70-kg patient has 40% TBSA burns. Using 4 mL/kg/% TBSA, what is the calculated 24 hour volume?

11,200 mL

93
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How much of the 11,200 mL would be administered during the first 8 hours from the time of the burn?

5,600 mL

94
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A burn occurred 2 hours ago, and the patient has just arrived for resuscitation. What happens to the first-half fluid deadline

The first half must be completed within the remaining 6 hours

95
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What is the best indicator that burn fluid resuscitation is adequate?

Urine output

96
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What adult urine output goal is emphasized?

30-50 mL/h or approximately 0.5 mL/kg/hr

97
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A burn patient receiving calculated fluids has urine output of 10 mL/hr for two consecutive hours. What should the nurse conclude?

Perfusion/resuscitation may be inadequate

98
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A patient has a circumferential full-thickness burn around the forearm. Which assessment is most important?

Distal neurovascular status

99
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Which findings suggest vascular compromise from a circumferential extremity burn? Select all that apply.

Decreased pulses

Delayed capillary refill

Sensory changes

Color changes

Increasing distal compromise

100
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Which procedure may be required to relieve constricting burn eschar?

Escharotomy