Science of Food Exam 2 (CHEM 131 Lectures 11 through 20)

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1
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All of these are causes of foodborne disease outbreaks except:

Consumption of products cooked to the proper temperature

2
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A contaminated casserole served at a local community supper is an example of what type of foodborne outbreak?

Local Outbreak

3
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A contaminated batch of beef sold at several locations of a grocery store chain makes people sick in several counties. What type of foodborne outbreak is this?

Statewide/Regional Outbreak

4
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Contaminated produce from one farm is shipped to grocery stores nationwide and sickens hundreds of people in many states. What type of foodborne outbreak is this?

National Outbreak

5
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Contaminated packaged salads lead to hospitalizations and deaths in both the United States and Canada. What type of foodborne outbreak is this?

International Outbreak

6
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Actions to stop a foodborne outbreak include:

All of the above

7
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A manufacturer will only recall a product if it has caused a foodborne outbreak. (T/F)

False

8
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Which type of hazard would you encounter if you found a bone in your food?

Physical

9
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Which HACCP principle is “Hazard analysis applied to foods”?

Principle 1

10
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Which HACCP principle is “Determine the critical control point”?

Principle 2

11
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Which HACCP principle is “Determine the critical limit”?

Principle 3

12
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Which HACCP principle is “Establishing monitoring procedures”?

Principle 4

13
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Which HACCP principle is “Establish corrective actions”?

Principle 5

14
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Which HACCP principle is “Establishing verification procedures”?

Principle 6

15
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Which HACCP principle is “Establishing record-keeping and documentation”?

Principle 7

16
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Which of the following are economic losses associated with contaminated products?

All of the above

17
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When two or more individuals experience an illness from the ingestion of the same food the event is considered a foodborne outbreak. (T/F)

True

18
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Which of the following is not a measure to control for chemical hazards?

Metal detectors

19
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Which of the following proteins is the causative agent of Celiac disease?

Gluten

20
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What are the causative agents of food allergies?

Proteins

21
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Food allergies affect _____% of the US population.

3-4%

22
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Celiac disease is an example of a:

Cell mediated food allergy

23
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Lactose intolerance is an example of a:

Metabolic food disorder

24
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Peanut allergy is an example of a:

IgE-mediated food allergy

25
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A generalized shock reaction is called:

Anaphylactic shock

26
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The “Big 9” are responsible for 90% of IgE-mediated food allergies and include all of the following except:

Corn

27
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This should be administered as soon as there is indication an individual is experiencing a severe allergic reaction.

Epinephrine

28
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Anaphylaxis is a severe type of allergic reaction that involves two or more body systems (e.g., hives and difficulty breathing). (T/F)

True

29
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Involves immunological mechanisms (Allergy/Intolerance)

Food Allergy

30
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Immune system is not involved (Allergy/Intolerance)

Food intolerance

31
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Individual can tolerate a limited amount of the food (Allergy/Intolerance)

Food intolerance

32
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Total avoidance of the offending food is necessary (Allergy/Intolerance)

Food allergy

33
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Which of the following is not a way to manage food allergies?

Frequently eat at restaurants

34
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When used as an ingredient, which of these foods has the highest number of recalls in regard to food allergy?

Milk

35
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A bacterial population has an initial count of 3 organisms and a generation time of 20 minutes. How many organisms will there be after 2 hours under optimum conditions for growth?

192

36
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Who demonstrated that air was not the cause of spoilage?

Louis Pasteur

37
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Who developed the first microscope?

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

38
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Who is the “Father of canning”?

Nicolas Appert

39
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Who received the Nobel Prize in 1905 for showing that a specific organism causes a disease and that it can pass from one animal to another?

Robert Koch

40
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Viruses replicate in food and living cells. (T/F)

False

41
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Bacteria reproduce by a process called:

Binary fission

42
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What is Step 1 of the virus reproduction cycle?

Food carries virus to intestinal tract

43
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What is Step 2 of the virus reproduction cycle?

Virus attaches to cell

44
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What is Step 3 of the virus reproduction cycle?

Virus injects its genetic material into the host cell

45
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What is Step 4 of the virus reproduction cycle?

Virus replicates and new particles burst out of the cell

46
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All fungi produce mycotoxins. (T/F)

False

47
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Aflatoxin is found in:

All of the above (Peanuts, Maize, and Cottonseeds)

48
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Which of the following is NOT a result of chronic exposure to low levels of mycotoxins?

Diarrhea

49
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Patulin is a carcinogen produced by molds growing on corn. (T/F)

False

50
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<p>Generation times for some common foodborne pathogens at 20°C and pH 7.0 are given in the table. <span>Which of these bacteria would grow the fastest under same conditions assuming that lag phase is not observed?</span></p>

Generation times for some common foodborne pathogens at 20°C and pH 7.0 are given in the table. Which of these bacteria would grow the fastest under same conditions assuming that lag phase is not observed?

B. cereus

51
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What is the lower limit used as criteria for countable microbial colonies on media plates?

25

52
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Fermented products typically have a high pH. (T/F)

False

53
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How can water activity be determined?

By measuring the vapor pressure of water above a food and comparing it to that of pure water

54
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Microorganisms are capable of producing which of the following?

All of the above

55
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Under optimal conditions, which of the following grows fastest?

Bacteria

56
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Which of the following are factors that affect the growth of microorganisms?

All of the above

57
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Which of the following usually requires the highest pH (lowest acid level) for growth?

Bacteria

58
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Pathogenic bacteria require an Aw greater than ______ for growth.

0.85

59
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What is the water activity of 100 g of a certain brand of mayonnaise that contains 77.6% oil, 1.74% salt and 17.2% moisture?

Cannot be calculated with given information

60
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<p><span>Assume that a given food has a population of 150,000 microorganisms per mL. </span>Which plate should be counted to determine the number in the original sample?</p>

Assume that a given food has a population of 150,000 microorganisms per mL. Which plate should be counted to determine the number in the original sample?

Plate 4

61
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Which of the following classification is used to describe the microorganisms that prefer the warmest temperatures for growth?

Thermophiles

62
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What is the term for application of multiple food preservation methods such as temperature, water activity and pH that aim to ensure food safety and quality by inactivation of different types of microorganisms?

Hurdle concept

63
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Which of the following products or practices is not associated with botulism.

Time-temperature abuse

64
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Which of the following microorganisms produces toxins that do not commonly lead to death, but causes symptoms such as abdominal pain, cramps, vomiting, a low body temperature.

Staphylococcus aureus

65
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Which of the following is an illness that causes muscle paralysis with higher rates of death within those who are affected?

Clostridium botulinum

66
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Which B. cereus illness often resembles Clostridium perfringens?

Diarrheal illness

67
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Which B. cereus illness often resembles Staphylococcus aureus?

Emetic illness

68
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Which B. cereus illness is an infection in the GI tract that leads to an intoxication?

Diarrheal illness

69
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Which B. cereus illness is the one where the microorganism grows and makes the toxin in the food, causing intoxication when it’s eaten?

Emetic illness

70
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At what temperature should you keep food hot after cooking so it stays safe?

140°F (60°C)

71
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It is safe for infant to consume honey. (T/F)

False

72
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Clostridium botulinum is a sporeforming bacterium that will not germinate at a pH of:

<4.8

73
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If you have a dry food product (like Cheetos), it is best to store them in environments with high relative humidity. (T/F)

False

74
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Listeriosis is associated with:

All of the above

75
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Consuming raw oysters will put you at risk of foodborne illness caused by __________.

Vibrio vulnificus

76
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Which product is associated most with illnesses caused by Salmonella enterica?

Poultry

77
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Mary Mallon was the first individual to be identified as a carrier of typhoid fever, without showing symptoms. (T/F)

True

78
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Which individuals are at risk for developing Listeriosis?

All of the above

79
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The strain of Salmonella called Salmonella Typhi causes gastroenteritis. (T/F)

False

80
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Which product or practice is not usually associated with Campylobacter?

Eggs

81
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Which of these bacterial infections causes the greatest number of hospitalizations in the U.S.?

Salmonella spp.

82
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Campylobacter has a high mortality rate and a low morbidity rate. (T/F)

False

83
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Which type of Vibrio is associated with natural disaster and is waterborne?

Vibrio cholerae

84
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Which of the following causes toxin-mediated infections?

D. Both C and D

85
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Preventing foodborne illnesses require:

All of the above

86
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Which of these two organisms may cause bloody diarrhea?

Shigella and Shiga-like toxin producing E. coli

87
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All E. coli strains are pathogenic and can cause illnesses in humans. (T/F)

False

88
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Which virus causes the most cases of foodborne disease?

Norovirus

89
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Which microorganism is non-sporeforming and can be either pathogenic or non-pathogenic?

E. coli

90
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Which mesophilic organism most commonly infects children under the age of 5?

Shigella

91
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Which virus causes jaundice?

Hepatitis A virus

92
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Which of the following is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the U.S.?

Norovirus

93
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Apple juices that are unpasteurized must have a warning label that informs consumers about the risks of consuming unpasteurized products. (T/F)

True

94
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Which of the individuals are particularly susceptible to STEC E. coli?

Young children

95
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Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) can lead to:

D. Both A and C (Permanent loss of kidney function and Death)

96
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Which products and/or practices are usually NOT associated with Shigella?

Shellfish

97
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Which product is usually not associated with Hepatitis A?

Ground beef

98
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When preparing foods, separating raw meats and poultry from other foods that will not be cooked does not improve food safety. (T/F)

False

99
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Which of the following statements is not true about parasites?

They always spend their entire life cycle in one, permanent host

100
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This parasite has been associated with recent outbreaks in the US causing illness in more than 1,500 individuals.

Cyclospora spp.