RAD1001: Chapter 6 Part One Toes, Foot and Calcaneus (Danielle MXCC)

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148 Terms

1
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How many total bones are in the foot?

A. 24 separate bones

B. 26 separate bones

C. 28 separate bones

D. 30 separate bones

B. 26 separate bones

2
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What are the 14 bones that form the toes called?

A. Metatarsal bones

B. Tarsal bones

C. Sesamoid bones

D. Phalanges

D. Phalanges

3
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What are the 5 bones that form the instep of the foot called?

A. Metatarsals

B. Phalanges

C. Tarsal bones

D. Cuneiforms

A. Metatarsals

4
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What are the 7 bones that form the proximal foot called?

A. Metatarsals

B. Phalanges

C. Tarsal bones

D. Sesamoids

C. Tarsal bones

5
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How are the phalanges numbered?

A. Digits 1 through 5 starting medially at the big toe

B. Digits 1 through 5 starting laterally at the small toe

C. Digits 5 through 1 starting medially at the big toe

D. Digits 1 through 5 starting proximally at the metatarsals

A. Digits 1 through 5 starting medially at the big toe

6
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How many phalanges does the first digit have?

A. 3 phalanges consisting of proximal middle and distal

B. 2 phalanges consisting of proximal and distal

C. 2 phalanges consisting of proximal and middle

D. 4 phalanges consisting of proximal middle distal and accessory

B. 2 phalanges consisting of proximal and distal

7
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How many phalanges do digits 2 through 5 have?

A. 2 phalanges each consisting of proximal and distal

B. 4 phalanges each consisting of proximal middle distal and accessory

C. 3 phalanges each consisting of proximal middle and distal

D. 2 phalanges each consisting of proximal and middle

C. 3 phalanges each consisting of proximal middle and distal

8
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What are the three parts of a metatarsal?

A. Head, neck, and tuberosity

B. Head, body, and tubercle

C. Base, shaft, and tuberosity

D. Head, body, and base

D. Head, body, and base.

9
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What is the laterally expanded base of the fifth metatarsal called?

A. Fifth metatarsal tuberosity

B. Fifth metatarsal head

C. Fifth metatarsal body

D. Fifth metatarsal sulcus

A. Fifth metatarsal tuberosity

10
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What are the seven tarsal bones?

A. Calcaneus, talus, cuboid, navicular, and three metatarsals
B. Calcaneus, talus, cuboid, navicular, and three phalanges
C. Calcaneus, talus, cuboid, navicular, and three cuneiforms
D. Calcaneus, talus, cuboid, navicular, and three sesamoids


C. Calcaneus, talus, cuboid, navicular, and three cuneiforms.

11
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What is the dorsal surface of the foot?

A. Bottom or sole of the foot oriented posteriorly

B. Top of the foot oriented anteriorly

C. Lateral aspect of the foot oriented inferiorly

D. Medial aspect of the foot oriented superiorly

B. Top of the foot oriented anteriorly

12
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What is the plantar surface of the foot?

A. Top of the foot oriented anteriorly

B. Lateral aspect of the foot oriented superiorly

C. Bottom or sole of the foot oriented posteriorly

D. Medial aspect of the foot oriented inferiorly

C. Bottom or sole of the foot oriented posteriorly

13
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What is the joint between the phalanges of the big toe (1st phalanx) called?

A. Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint
B. Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint
C. Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint
D. Interphalangeal (IP) joint

D. Interphalangeal (IP) joint.

14
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What joint is between the proximal and middle phalanges of toes 2 through 5?

A. Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint
B. Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint
C. Interphalangeal (IP) joint
D. Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint

A. Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint.

15
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What joint is between the middle and distal phalanges of toes 2 through 5?

A. Proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP)
B. Distal interphalangeal joint (DIP)
C. Interphalangeal joint (IP)
D. Tarsometatarsal joint (TMT)


B. Distal interphalangeal joint (DIP).

16
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What type of joints are the IP, PIP, and DIP joints, and what movement do they allow?

A. Hinge joints, allowing flexion and extension
B. Plane joints, allowing gliding movements
C. Saddle joints, allowing opposition and circumduction
D. Condyloid joints, allowing flexion, extension, and abduction

A. Hinge joints, allowing flexion and extension.

17
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What is the joint between a proximal phalanx and the head of a metatarsal called?

A. Interphalangeal (IP) joint
B. Tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint
C. Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint
D. Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint


C. Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint.

18
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How is the MTP joint classified, and what movements occur at this joint?

A. Hinge joint, allowing flexion, extension, and rotation
B. Plane joint, allowing gliding, planing, rotation, and full circumduction
C. Condyloid joint, allowing flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction.
D. Saddle joint, allowing inversion, eversion, dorsiflexion, and plantar flexion

C. Condyloid joint, allowing flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction.

19
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Does circumduction generally occur at the MTP joint?

A. No it generally does not occur

B. Yes it occurs freely

C. Yes but only during weight-bearing

D. No it occurs only in the first digit

A. No it generally does not occur

20
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What is the joint between a metatarsal base and tarsal bone called?

A. Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint
B. Tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint
C. Interphalangeal (IP) joint
D. Subtalar (ST) joint


B. Tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint.

21
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How is the TMT joint classified, and what movement occurs at this joint?

A. Hinge joint, allowing flexion and extension
B. Condyloid joint, allowing circumduction and rotation
C. Plane or gliding joint, allowing limited gliding movement
D. Saddle joint, allowing extensive rotation and movement


C. Plane or gliding joint, allowing limited gliding movement.

22
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What are small detached bones embedded in tendons called?

A. Accessory bones

B. Sesamoid bones

C. Wormian bones

D. Heterotopic bones

B. Sesamoid bones

23
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How many sesamoid bones are usually in the foot and where?

A. Usually 2 on the dorsal surface near the first metatarsophalangeal joint

B. Usually 2 on the plantar surface near the head of the first metatarsal and first MTP joint

C. Usually 3 on the lateral surface near the fifth metatarsal head and adjacent joint

D. Usually 1 on the medial surface near the navicular bone and surrounding midfoot region

B. Usually 2 on the plantar surface near the head of the first metatarsal and first MTP joint

24
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What is the medial sesamoid called?

A. Fibular sesamoid

B. Tibial sesamoid

C. Medial cuneiform sesamoid

D. Navicular sesamoid

B. Tibial sesamoid

25
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What is the lateral sesamoid called?

A. Fibular sesamoid

B. Tibial sesamoid

C. Lateral cuneiform sesamoid

D. Cuboid sesamoid

A. Fibular sesamoid

26
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What is the largest and strongest tarsal bone?

A. Talus

B. Navicular

C. Cuboid

D. Calcaneus

D. Calcaneus

27
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What is the posterior and inferior prominence of the calcaneus called?

A. Sustentaculum tali

B. Calcaneal tuberosity

C. Peroneal trochlea

D. Calcaneal sulcus

B. Calcaneal tuberosity

28
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Where do bone spurs commonly occur?

A. On the superior aspect of the calcaneus

B. On the inferior aspect of the calcaneus

C. On the medial aspect of the talus

D. On the lateral aspect of the cuboid

B. On the inferior aspect of the calcaneus

29
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Which calcaneal process is larger lateral or medial?

A. Medial calcaneal process

B. Lateral calcaneal process

B. Lateral calcaneal process

30
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What tendon attaches to the calcaneal region?

A. Patellar tendon

B. Achilles tendon

C. Tibialis posterior tendon

D. Peroneus longus tendon

B. Achilles tendon

31
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What is the process on the lateral calcaneus that varies in size and shape?

A. Peroneal trochlea

B. Sustentaculum tali

C. Calcaneal tuberosity

D. Calcaneal sulcus

A. Peroneal trochlea or trochlear process

32
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What is the sustentaculum tali, where is it located, and what is its function?

A. A bony shelf on the medial calcaneus that supports the talus and provides medial foot support for weight bearing
B. A bony projection on the lateral calcaneus that supports the cuboid and provides lateral foot stability
C. A bony ridge on the posterior calcaneus that supports the Achilles tendon and assists ankle movement
D. A bony process on the anterior calcaneus that supports the navicular and helps maintain foot alignment

A. A bony shelf on the medial calcaneus that supports the talus and provides medial foot support for weight bearing.

33
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What bones does the calcaneus articulate with?

A. Talus anteriorly and cuboid superiorly

B. Cuboid anteriorly and talus superiorly

C. Navicular anteriorly and talus superiorly

D. Cuboid posteriorly and navicular superiorly

B. Cuboid anteriorly and talus superiorly

34
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What is the function of the subtalar joint?

A. Transmits body weight toward the ground when standing
B. Allows movement of the foot during walking and standing
C. Supports the medial longitudinal arch of the foot during weight-bearing
D. Enables movement of the toes during walking and standing

A. Transmits body weight toward the ground when standing

35
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What are the three calcaneal articular facets?

A. Anterior, middle, and lateral
B. Posterior, middle, and anterior
C. Superior, middle, and inferior
D. Medial, central, and lateral


B. Posterior, middle, and anterior

36
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What is the deep depression between the posterior and middle articular facets called?

A. Sinus tarsi

B. Calcaneal sulcus

C. Sustentaculum tali

D. Peroneal trochlea

B. Calcaneal sulcus

37
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What is the opening between the superior talus and inferior calcaneal sulcus called?

A. Calcaneal sulcus

B. Sinus tarsi

C. Sustentaculum tali

D. Tarsal canal

B. Sinus tarsi

38
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Why is the sinus tarsi important?

A. It allows tendons and ligament to pass through and supports foot movement and balance
B. It connects the bones of the ankle to the tarsals and stabilizes the joint during movement
C. It provides attachment for muscles and CR positioning during an X-ray radiograoth
D. It allows ligaments to pass through and is an important structure in foot X-ray evaluation

D. It allows ligaments to pass through and is an important structure in foot X-ray evaluation

39
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What is the second-largest tarsal bone, and where is it located?

A. Calcaneus, between the lower leg and navicular
B. Cuboid, between the calcaneus and metatarsals
C. Talus, between the lower leg and calcaneus
D. Navicular, between the talus and cuneiforms

C. Talus, between the lower leg and calcaneus.

40
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What is the function of the talus?

A. Supports the medial longitudinal arch during gait

B. Transmits body weight from the lower leg through the ankle

C. Provides attachment for the peroneal tendons

D. Forms the lateral border of the transverse arch

B. Transmits body weight from the lower leg through the ankle

41
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What bones does the talus articulate with?

A. Tibia and fibula inferiorly, calcaneus superiorly, navicular posteriorly

B. Tibia and fibula superiorly, calcaneus inferiorly, navicular anteriorly

C. Tibia and fibula anteriorly, calcaneus posteriorly, navicular superiorly

D. Tibia and fibula posteriorly, calcaneus anteriorly, navicular inferiorly

B. Tibia and fibula superiorly, calcaneus inferiorly, navicular anteriorly

42
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What is the flattened oval-shaped bone on the medial foot called?

A. Cuboid

B. Navicular

C. Medial cuneiform

D. Talus

B. Navicular

43
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What bones does the navicular articulate with?

A. Talus posteriorly, cuboid laterally, and three cuneiforms anteriorly
B. Talus anteriorly, cuboid medially, and three cuneiforms posteriorly
C. Calcaneus posteriorly, cuboid laterally, and three metatarsals anteriorly
D. Talus superiorly, cuboid inferiorly, and three cuneiforms laterally

A. Talus posteriorly, cuboid laterally, and three cuneiforms anteriorly

44
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What is the cube-shaped bone on the lateral foot called?

A. Navicular

B. Cuboid

C. Lateral cuneiform

D. Talus

B. Cuboid

45
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What bones does the cuboid articulate with?

A. Calcaneus, distally; lateral cuneiform and navicular, medially; fourth and fifth metatarsals, proximally

B. Calcaneus, proximally; lateral cuneiform and navicular, medially; fourth and fifth metatarsals, distally

C. Talus, proximally; medial cuneiform and navicular, laterally; first and second metatarsals, distally

D. Navicular, proximally; lateral cuneiform and calcaneus, medially; fourth and fifth metatarsals, distally


B. Calcaneus, proximally; lateral cuneiform and navicular, medially; fourth and fifth metatarsals, distally.

46
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What are the three wedge-shaped tarsal bones called?

A. Sesamoids

B. Cuneiforms

C. Metatarsals

D. Phalanges

B. Cuneiforms

47
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Which cuneiform is the largest?

A. Intermediate cuneiform

B. Lateral cuneiform

C. Medial cuneiform

D. Navicular cuneiform

C. Medial cuneiform

48
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What arch follows the long axis of the foot?

A. Superior and Inerior Transverse arch

B. Medial and Lateral Longitudinal arch

C. Medial and Lateral Metatarsal arch

D. Tarsal arch

B. Medial and Lateral longitudinal arch

49
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What arch runs from medial to lateral across the cuneiforms to the cuboid?

A. Medial longitudinal arch

B. Lateral longitudinal arch

C. Transverse arch

D. Anterior metatarsal arch

C. Transverse arch

50
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What is the function of the foot arches?

A. Provide weight-bearing support and shock absorption

B. Enable dorsiflexion and plantar flexion

C. Support the Achilles tendon during gait

D. Facilitate inversion and eversion

A. Provide weight-bearing support and shock absorption

51
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What movement decreases the angle between the foot and ankle and brings toes toward the nose?

A. Plantar flexion

B. Inversion

C. Dorsiflexion

D. Eversion

C. Dorsiflexion

52
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What movement increases the angle between the foot and ankle and points the foot and toes downward?

A. Plantar flexion

B. Dorsiflexion

C. Inversion

D. Eversion

A. Plantar flexion

53
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What is inward movement of the foot at the ankle called?

A. Eversion or valgus

B. Inversion or varus

C. Dorsiflexion

D. Plantar flexion

B. Inversion or varus

54
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What is outward movement of the foot at the ankle called?

A. Eversion or valgus

B. Inversion or varus

C. Dorsiflexion

D. Plantar flexion

A. Eversion or valgus

55
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What is the common imaging setup for foot radiography?

A. Upright bucky with a grid cassette

B. Table with a free plate stretcher or portable bedside

C. Weight-bearing platform with a dedicated cassette holder

D. Cross-table lateral position with a horizontal beam

B. Table with a free plate stretcher or portable bedside

56
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How are casts handled during foot imaging?

A. Must be removed before exposure to avoid artifact

B. Remain in place and exposure may need to be increased

C. Remain in place and exposure may need to be decreased

D. Must be replaced with a splint before exposure

B. Remain in place and exposure may need to be increased

57
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What should be done with gauze during foot imaging?

A. Leave in place to support the arch

B. Remove if possible to prevent artifacts

C. Wrap tightly around the toes

D. Soak in contrast before imaging

B. Remove if possible to prevent artifacts

58
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What is a common lower-extremity concern in diabetic patients?

A. Diabetic foot wounds

B. Diabetic foot effusion

C. Diabetic foot necrosis

D. Diabetic foot adhesive capsulitis

A. Diabetic foot wounds

59
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What are diabetic foot ulcers associated with?

A. Poor blood flow and neuropathy in the lower extremities

B. Increased bone density and hyperflexibility in the lower extremities

C. Autoimmune destruction of joint cartilage in the foot

D. Excessive uric acid deposition in soft tissue of the foot

A. Poor blood flow and neuropathy in the lower extremities

60
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What is arthritis caused by excessive uric acid deposits in joints called, and what is its most common initial location?

A. Osteoarthritis, commonly affecting the first MTP joint
B. Rheumatoid arthritis, commonly affecting the first PIP joint
C. Gout, commonly affecting the first MTP joint
D. Psoriatic arthritis, commonly affecting the tibiotalar joint


C. Gout, commonly affecting the first MTP joint.

61
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What can nonhealing ulcers do to bone?

A. May strengthen bone through calcification

B. May penetrate bone and break it down

C. May cause bone to migrate medially

D. May convert cortical bone to cancellous bone

B. May penetrate bone and break it down

62
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What is the accumulation of fluid in a joint cavity called, and what types of fluid can accumulate?

A. Joint effusion, involving excess synovial fluid or blood from hemorrhaging
B. Joint dislocation, involving displacement of bones from their normal position
C. Joint subluxation, involving partial displacement of bones from their normal position
D. Joint crepitus, involving grinding sensations caused by joint movement


A. Joint effusion, involving excess synovial fluid or blood from hemorrhaging.

63
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What may joint effusion indicate?

A. Fracture dislocation or soft-tissue damage

B. Bone tumor or metabolic disease

C. Muscle atrophy or nerve damage

D. Ligament calcification or bone spur

A. Fracture dislocation or soft-tissue damage

64
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What is an injury to the ligament spanning the medial cuneiform and bases of the first and second metatarsals called, and who is most commonly affected?

A. Jones fracture, commonly affecting athletes involved in high-impact sports
B. Lisfranc injury, commonly affecting athletes involved in high-impact sports
C. March fracture, commonly affecting elderly patients with reduced bone density
D. Sever disease, commonly affecting pediatric patients during periods of growth


B. Lisfranc injury, commonly affecting athletes involved in high-impact sports.

65
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What bone marrow tumor is highly malignant and usually fatal, and what is its characteristic X-ray appearance?

A. Multiple myeloma, appearing as multiple punched-out lesions in affected bones
B. Osteochondroma, appearing as a bony outgrowth from the bone surface
C. Ewing sarcoma, appearing as a permeative lesion with onion-skin periosteal reaction
D. Giant cell tumor, appearing as an expansile, lytic lesion near the joint


A. Multiple myeloma, appearing as multiple punched-out lesions in affected bones.

66
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What is deterioration of articular cartilage with overgrown bone formation called?

A. Gout

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Osteoarthritis

D. Psoriatic arthritis

C. Osteoarthritis

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What is the patient position for toe AP and AP axial?

A. Prone with knee extended and dorsum of foot on IR

B. Seated or supine with knee flexed and plantar foot on IR

C. Lateral recumbent with affected side down and foot on IR

D. Standing with weight on the affected foot and foot on IR

B. Seated or supine with knee flexed and plantar foot on IR

68
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What positioning option may be used for toe AP axial?

A. Elevate toes on a 15 degree wedge sponge

B. Lower toes below the level of the heel

C. Rotate the foot 45 degrees laterally

D. Angle the tube 30 degrees cephalad

A. Elevate toes on a 15 degree wedge sponge

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Where is the CR centered for a single-toe projection?

A. Affected MTP joint to IR

B. Affected PIP joint to IR

C. Affected DIP joint to IR

D. Base of the metatarsal to IR

A. Affected MTP joint to IR

70
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What is the CR angle for toe AP axial?

A. 10 to 15 degrees anteriorly toward the toes

B. 10 to 15 degrees posteriorly toward the heel

C. 20 to 25 degrees posteriorly toward the heel

D. 30 to 35 degrees anteriorly toward the toes

B. 10 to 15 degrees posteriorly toward the heel

71
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What is the collimation for one digit?

A. Affected digit partial adjacent digits and half the metatarsal

B. Affected digit only with no adjacent structures, and half the metatarsal

C. All five digits, the entire metatarsals, and entire tarsals

D. Affected digit and the entire calcaneus

A. Affected digit partial adjacent digits and half the metatarsal

72
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What is expected on AP axial images regarding toe joint spaces?

A. Open toe joint spaces

B. Closed toe joint spaces

C. Overlapping toe joint spaces

D. Obliterated toe joint spaces

A. Open toe joint spaces

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How is toe rotation checked?

A. Phalangeal shafts and distal metatarsals should appear equally concave on both sides

B. Phalangeal shafts and distal metatarsals should appear equally convex on both sides

C. Phalangeal shafts should appear concave and metatarsals convex

D. Phalangeal shafts should appear convex and metatarsals concave

A. Phalangeal shafts and distal metatarsals should appear equally concave on both sides

74
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How are digits 1 and 2 versus digits 4 and 5 positioned for a toe oblique projection?

A. Medially rotate the leg and foot for digits 1 and 2, and laterally rotate for digits 4 and 5
B. Laterally rotate the leg and foot for digits 1 and 2, and medially rotate for digits 4 and 5
C. Rotate the leg and foot 90 degrees for both digits 1 and 2, and digits 4 and 5
D. Keep the leg and foot in neutral position for both digits 1 and 2, and digits 4 and 5


A. Medially rotate the leg and foot for digits 1 and 2, and laterally rotate for digits 4 and 5.

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How is digit 3 positioned for oblique?

A. Medial rotation only

B. Lateral rotation only

C. Either oblique position may be used

D. Neither oblique position should be used

C. Either oblique position may be used

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What is the toe oblique angle?

A. Plantar surface 15 to 20 degrees from the IR

B. Plantar surface 30 to 45 degrees from the IR

C. Plantar surface 60 to 75 degrees from the IR

D. Plantar surface 90 degrees from the IR

B. Plantar surface 30 to 45 degrees from the IR

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What is the CR direction for toe oblique?

A. Perpendicular to the affected MTP joint
B. 15 degrees caudad to the affected MTP joint
C. 15 degrees cephalad to the affected MTP joint
D. 30 degrees cephalad to the affected MTP joint


A. Perpendicular to the affected MTP joint.

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What is the evaluation criteria for toe oblique?

A. Entire digit or digits, half metatarsals, bone detail, and soft-tissue detail

B. Entire digit or digits, full metatarsals, and minimal bone and soft-tissue detail

C. Proximal phalanges only, with no metatarsals visible and limited detail

D. Distal phalanges only, with superimposed soft tissues and limited detail

A. Entire digit or digits, half metatarsals, bone detail, and soft-tissue detail

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What indicates correct toe obliquity?

A. Increased concavity on one side of shafts and soft-tissue overlap

B. Equal concavity on both sides of shafts and no soft-tissue overlap

C. Increased convexity on one side of shafts and no soft-tissue overlap

D. Equal convexity on both sides of shafts and soft-tissue overlap

A. Increased concavity on one side of shafts and soft-tissue overlap

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How should metatarsal heads appear on toe oblique?

A. Side by side with no or minimal overlap

B. Completely superimposed with maximum overlap

C. Angled 45 degrees with moderate overlap

D. Angled 90 degrees with no overlap

A. Side by side with no or minimal overlap

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What is the patient position for lateral toe?

A. Supine

B. Prone

C. Lateral recumbent

D. Standing

C. Lateral recumbent

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How is toe superimposition prevented?

A. Tape unaffected toes apart using tape, gauze, or a tongue depressor
B. Tape all toes together tightly using adhesive tape for support
C. Position the foot in extreme dorsiflexion using a positioning wedge
D. Elevate the foot on a 45-degree wedge sponge for positioning

A. Tape unaffected toes apart using tape, gauze, or a tongue depressor.

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What lateral projections are used for the toes?

A. First and second: Mediolateral; third through fifth: Lateromedial
B. First and second: Lateromedial; third through fifth: Mediolateral
C. First and second: AP; third through fifth: PA
D. First and second: PA; third through fifth: AP


A. First and second: Mediolateral; third through fifth: Lateromedial.

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Where is the CR directed for first digit lateral?

A. Perpendicular to the MTP joint

B. Perpendicular to the IP joint

C. Perpendicular to the PIP joint

D. Perpendicular to the DIP joint

B. Perpendicular to the IP joint

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Where is the CR directed for digits 2 through 5 lateral?

A. Perpendicular to the MTP joint

B. Perpendicular to the IP joint

C. Perpendicular to the affected PIP joint

D. Perpendicular to the affected DIP joint

C. Perpendicular to the affected PIP joint

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If complete toe separation is impossible what should be done?

A. At least separate the proximal phalanx

B. At least separate the middle phalanx

C. At least separate the distal phalanx

D. At least separate the metatarsal head

C. At least separate the distal phalanx

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How is the great toe positioned for prone sesamoid imaging?

A. Plantar flex the great toe and rest it on the table

B. Dorsiflex the great toe and rest it on the table

C. Rotate the great toe 45 degrees medially

D. Rotate the great toe 45 degrees laterally

B. Dorsiflex the great toe and rest it on the table

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What is the foot angle for sesamoid imaging?

A. Plantar surface forms a 45 to 60 degree angle from vertical

B. Plantar surface forms a 15 to 20 degree angle from vertical

C. Plantar surface forms a 30 to 35 degree angle from vertical

D. Plantar surface forms a 60 to 75 degree angle from vertical

B. Plantar surface forms a 15 to 20 degree angle from vertical

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What is an alternative position for sesamoid imaging, and how may the toes be held?

A. Prone with foot plantar flexed; toes held with gauze or tape
B. Supine with foot dorsiflexed; toes held with a bandage
C. Lateral recumbent with affected side down; toes held with a sandbag
D. Standing with weight on affected foot; toes held with a sponge


A. Prone with foot plantar flexed; toes held with gauze or tape.;

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What is the CR direction for sesamoid imaging?

A. Perpendicular to IR and tangential to the posterior aspect of the first MTP joint

B. Perpendicular to IR and tangential to the anterior aspect of the first MTP joint

C. Angled 15 degrees cephalad to the posterior/dorsal aspect of the first MTP joint

D. Angled 15 degrees caudad to the anterior aspect of the first or second MTP joint

A. Perpendicular to IR and tangential to the posterior aspect of the first MTP joint

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When may CR adjustment be needed for sesamoid imaging?

A. Slight angulation may be needed depending on plantar flexion

B. Slight angulation may be needed depending on dorsiflexion

C. Significant angulation may be needed depending on inversion

D. Significant angulation may be needed depending on eversion

B. Slight angulation may be needed depending on dorsiflexion

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What is the collimation for sesamoid imaging?

A. Include first through third distal metatarsals and keep CR at first MTP

B. Include first through third proximal phalanges and keep CR at first PIP

C. Include first through fifth metatarsals and keep CR at third MTP

D. Include first through third cuneiforms and keep CR at navicular

A. Include first through third distal metatarsals and keep CR at first MTP

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How is the part positioned for AP axial foot?

A. Leg vertical and foot aligned with short axis of IR

B. Leg vertical and foot aligned with long axis of IR

C. Leg angled 15 degrees and foot aligned with short axis of IR

D. Leg angled 30 degrees and foot aligned with long axis of IR

B. Leg vertical and foot aligned with long axis of IR

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What is the CR for AP axial foot?

A. 10 degrees toward the heel entering at the base of the third metatarsal

B. 10 degrees toward the toes entering at the base of the third metatarsal

C. 15 degrees toward the heel entering at the base of the first metatarsal

D. 15 degrees toward the toes entering at the base of the fifth metatarsal

A. 10 degrees toward the heel entering at the base of the third metatarsal

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What CR is used for foreign-body foot imaging?

A. CR angled 10 degrees toward the heel

B. CR angled 15 degrees toward the heel

C. CR perpendicular to IR

D. CR angled 30 degrees toward the toes

C. CR perpendicular to IR

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How do MTP joint spaces appear on AP axial foot?

A. Generally open

B. Generally closed

C. Generally overlapped

D. Generally obliterated

A. Generally open

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How do metatarsal bases appear on AP axial foot?

A. First and second bases generally separated and second through fifth bases overlap

B. First and second bases generally overlap and second through fifth bases separated

C. All metatarsal bases generally separated

D. All metatarsal bases generally overlap

A. First and second bases generally separated and second through fifth bases overlap

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What intertarsal joint should be visible on AP axial foot?

A. Joint space between the medial and intermediate cuneiforms

B. Joint space between the intermediate and lateral cuneiforms

C. Joint space between the navicular and cuboid

D. Joint space between the talus and calcaneus

A. Joint space between the medial and intermediate cuneiforms

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What is the preferred foot oblique?

A. Lateral rotation

B. Medial rotation

C. No rotation

D. 90 degree rotation

B. Medial rotation