CM10 | Cell Cycle Regulation and Growth Control

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Comprehensive practice flashcards covering cell cycle regulation, stages of mitosis and interphase, checkpoints, cyclins, CDKs, and DNA damage response mechanisms.

Last updated 1:30 AM on 10/8/26
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100 Terms

1
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Which is a primary reason cells divide?

Growth and tissue maintenance

2
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Replacement of damaged cells during wound healing illustrates which purpose of division?

Tissue repair

3
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Which cells are listed as terminally differentiated?

Neurons, myocytes, and osteocytes

4
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Which cells are described as reversibly quiescent?

Hepatocytes and stem cells

5
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Which cells are described as dividing frequently, about every 12–24 hours?

Epithelial and bone marrow cells

6
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The Hayflick limit in the lecture is approximately how many divisions?

20–5020\text{--}50

7
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Which cells are described as dividing approximately every 20 minutes?

Embryonic cells

8
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Which cells may divide indefinitely?

Cancerous or immortalized cultured cells

9
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Which is an internal growth signal category?

Kinases and phosphatases

10
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How do external growth factors influence the cell cycle?

Bind receptors and trigger signaling pathways

11
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What does the cell cycle ultimately produce?

Two identical daughter cells

12
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Which broad period is generally long and nondividing?

Interphase

13
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Which sequence lists the interphase stages correctly?

G1 → S → G2

14
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Which process predominates in G1?

Cell growth with RNA and protein synthesis

15
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Which phase doubles DNA content?

S phase

16
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What is emphasized as occurring during G2?

Protein synthesis for division and centrosome duplication

17
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Which stage directly follows G1 in a cycling cell?

S phase

18
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What does karyokinesis refer to?

Separation of chromosomes during nuclear division

19
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What does cytokinesis refer to?

Division of cytoplasm

20
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Mitosis in the lecture is associated with which cells?

Somatic cells

21
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Which is the correct order of mitotic stages?

Prophase → metaphase → anaphase → telophase

22
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What happens to sister chromatids in prophase?

They condense into visible chromosomes

23
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Which structure assembles in prophase?

Mitotic spindle

24
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What happens to the nuclear envelope in prophase, as presented in the lecture?

It disintegrates

25
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Where do centrosomes begin moving in prophase?

Toward opposite poles

26
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What defines metaphase?

Chromosomes align at the spindle equator

27
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What is the metaphase plate?

The equatorial alignment of chromosomes

28
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Where do spindle fibers attach to chromosomes?

Kinetochores

29
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Where are kinetochores located?

On centromeres

30
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What is a kinetochore primarily composed of?

A multiprotein structure

31
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Which microtubule end is anchored to spindle poles according to the lecture?

Minus end

32
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Which microtubule end attaches to kinetochores according to the lecture?

Plus end

33
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Why is stable kinetochore attachment important?

Correct chromosome segregation

34
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What occurs first in anaphase as described?

Centromeres split and sister chromatids separate

35
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What moves chromatids toward opposite poles in anaphase?

Shortening of spindle fibers

36
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Where do chromosomes cluster in telophase?

At opposite poles

37
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Which structure reassembles in telophase?

Nuclear envelope

38
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Which structure reappears during telophase?

Nucleolus

39
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What contractile structure appears in telophase?

Contractile ring

40
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What proteins generate the cleavage furrow in cytokinesis?

Actin and myosin

41
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What is the midbody?

A thin intercellular bridge during cytokinesis

42
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What is the final outcome of cytokinesis?

Separation into two daughter cells

43
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What is the overall role of cell-cycle checkpoints?

Surveil events and control progression

44
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Which components form a checkpoint pathway?

Sensor, signaling pathway, and effector

45
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What can a checkpoint effector do?

Halt progression and activate repair

46
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Which checkpoint is called the restriction point?

G1 checkpoint

47
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Which checkpoint is described as most important and rate limiting?

G1 checkpoint

48
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Which factor is evaluated at the G1 checkpoint?

Cell size

49
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Which additional factors are evaluated at the G1 checkpoint?

Nutrients, molecular cues, and DNA integrity

50
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A cell passing the G1 restriction point proceeds into which phase?

S phase

51
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A cell that does not pass the G1 restriction point may enter which state?

G0

52
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Which description best fits G0?

A nondividing, working state

53
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Which G0 cells can reenter the cycle with appropriate signals?

Quiescent cells

54
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Which cells are permanently withdrawn due to aging?

Senescent cells

55
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Which G0 category consists of fully functioning cells withdrawn from the cycle?

Terminally differentiated cells

56
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What does the G2/M checkpoint verify?

DNA replication completion and DNA damage

57
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What does the spindle checkpoint evaluate?

Chromosome–microtubule attachment

58
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What else does the M checkpoint assess?

Whether chromatids are ready to separate

59
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According to the lecture slide, what is a STOP outcome at the G2/M or M checkpoint?

Apoptosis

60
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Why are checkpoints described as binary switches?

They permit progression or block it

61
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What cyclical change helps control cell-cycle progression?

Cyclin synthesis and degradation

62
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What is the main enzymatic action of active CDKs?

Protein phosphorylation

63
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What initially obscures the CDK active site?

T-loop

64
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What is the first activating effect of cyclin binding to CDK?

Partial activation by relieving T-loop blockage

65
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What yields full CDK activation in the lecture?

Activating phosphorylation

66
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What does CKI stand for in the lecture context?

Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor

67
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How do CKIs inhibit cyclin–CDK complexes?

Distort the active site and inhibit enzymatic activity

68
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Which cyclin pairs with CDK4 and CDK6 in the cycle diagram?

Cyclin D

69
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Which cyclin pairs with CDK2 at the G1/S transition in the diagram?

Cyclin E

70
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Which cyclin pairs with CDK1 in mitosis in the diagram?

Cyclin B

71
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Which cyclin is shown pairing with CDK2 during S phase?

Cyclin A

72
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Which cyclin is shown pairing with CDK1 around G2/M?

Cyclin A

73
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What does the Rb–E2F complex do in G0?

Blocks cell-cycle progression

74
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What do mitogens stimulate in G1?

G1-CDKs that phosphorylate Rb

75
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What is released when Rb is phosphorylated?

E2F

76
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What does E2F promote?

Transcription of G1/S-phase CDKs

77
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What is an outcome of G1/S-CDK activity?

Passage through G1 and initiation of DNA replication

78
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According to the lecture, cells in G0 do not synthesize which regulators?

Cyclins or CDKs

79
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Which sequence best represents mitogen-driven G1 progression?

Mitogen → G1-CDK → Rb phosphorylation → E2F release

80
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What is the main effect of Rb phosphorylation in this pathway?

Release of a transcriptional activator

81
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What does SPF stand for?

S-phase promoting factor

82
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Which complex is identified as SPF?

S-phase cyclin–CDK complex

83
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What does SPF phosphorylate to promote replication initiation?

Helicase

84
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Where does SPF recruit helicase activators?

Origins of replication

85
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Which enzymes are subsequently recruited to initiate DNA replication?

DNA polymerases

86
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What does MPF stand for?

Mitosis promoting factor

87
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When are mitotic cyclin–CDK complexes produced according to the lecture?

During G2

88
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Which kinase inhibits MPF until DNA replication is completed?

Wee1

89
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Which enzyme reverses Wee1 inhibition and activates MPF?

Cdc25 phosphatase

90
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How does Cdc25 activate MPF?

Dephosphorylation

91
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Which complex is activated by MPF to promote exit from mitosis?

APC/C

92
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How does APC/C promote mitotic cyclin degradation?

Ubiquitination

93
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Which proteins hold sister chromatids together during metaphase according to the lecture?

Cohesins including SMC1 and SMC3

94
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What inhibits separase protease activity during metaphase in the lecture?

CDK phosphorylation

95
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What occurs after successful M-checkpoint passage in the lecture mechanism?

APC/C promotes mitotic cyclin ubiquitination

96
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What is the consequence of separase activation in the lecture?

Cohesin cleavage and sister chromatid release

97
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Which kinase responds to single-strand DNA damage according to the lecture?

ATR

98
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Which kinase responds to double-strand DNA damage according to the lecture?

ATM

99
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What tumor suppressor is stabilized in the DNA damage response?

p53

100
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What does p53-induced p21 contribute to?

Cell-cycle arrest that allows DNA repair