HISTO <3 Blood hematopoeisis

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Last updated 10:32 PM on 9/28/26
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115 Terms

1
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Plasma vs serum: what is the key distinction?

Plasma contains fibrinogen, while serum lacks fibrinogen after clotting

2
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Why does serum lack fibrinogen?

Clotting converts fibrinogen into fibrin, removing it from the liquid fraction

3
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After anticoagulated blood is centrifuged, what are the 3 layers?

Bottom: RBC hematocrit, middle: buffy coat, top: plasma

4
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What cells make up the buffy coat?

Leukocytes and platelets

5
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Why is the center of a normal RBC pale on a blood smear?

Its biconcave shape makes the center thinner and more translucent

6
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Why is the RBC biconcave shape physiologically advantageous?

It increases surface area for gas exchange and facilitates deformability

7
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How can an ~8-µm RBC traverse a ~5-µm capillary?

Its flexible cytoskeleton allows marked deformation and folding

8
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What is the normal circulating lifespan of an erythrocyte?

Approximately 120 days

9
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Why can't a mature RBC undergo mitosis?

It lacks a nucleus and organelles

10
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What makes RBC cytoplasm strongly eosinophilic?

Its high hemoglobin concentration

11
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Where does hematopoiesis occur after birth?

Red bone marrow

12
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What are the 3 major prenatal hematopoietic phases in order?

Yolk sac → liver → bone marrow

13
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Which hematopoietic site predominates during the 1st trimester?

Yolk sac

14
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Which hematopoietic site predominates during the 2nd trimester?

Liver

15
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Which hematopoietic site predominates during the 3rd trimester?

Bone marrow

16
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All circulating blood cells ultimately arise from what cell?

Hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)

17
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Why does Moffett prefer "hematopoietic stem cell" over "pluripotent stem cell"?

HSCs are multipotent for blood lineages, not truly pluripotent for all tissues

18
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What 2 major progenitors arise from an HSC?

Common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) and common myeloid progenitor (CMP)

19
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Which cells arise from the common lymphoid progenitor?

T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells

20
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What major cells arise from the common myeloid progenitor?

RBCs, platelets, granulocytes, monocytes, and dendritic cells

21
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A cell can become an RBC or platelet. What progenitor is it?

Megakaryocyte-erythroid progenitor (MEP), a bipotent progenitor

22
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What determines which lineage a hematopoietic progenitor enters?

Growth-factor signaling drives lineage commitment and maturation

23
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Which hormone drives erythroid development?

Erythropoietin (EPO)

24
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Which hormone drives megakaryocyte/platelet development?

Thrombopoietin (TPO)

25
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When is an erythroid precursor committed specifically to the RBC lineage?

At the erythroid colony-forming unit/erythrocyte progenitor stage

26
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About how long does it take to progress from a committed erythroid progenitor to a mature RBC?

Approximately 8 days in Moffett's lecture

27
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During erythropoiesis, what happens to overall cell size?

It progressively decreases

28
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During erythropoiesis, what happens to nuclear size?

It progressively decreases until the nucleus is extruded

29
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Why does erythroid cytoplasm become more eosinophilic with maturation?

Increasing hemoglobin synthesis overwhelms the earlier basophilia

30
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Why is an early erythroblast strongly basophilic?

Abundant ribosomal RNA used for protein and hemoglobin synthesis

31
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Why is a polychromatophilic erythroblast both blue and pink?

It contains basophilic ribosomes plus increasing eosinophilic hemoglobin

32
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What is the first anucleate stage of erythroid maturation?

Reticulocyte

33
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How does an erythroblast lose its nucleus?

Nuclear extrusion

34
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Why can a reticulocyte no longer divide?

It has already extruded its nucleus

35
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What remnants distinguish a reticulocyte from a mature RBC?

Residual polyribosomes, organelles, and filamentous material

36
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What happens as a reticulocyte becomes a mature erythrocyte?

Residual organelles and ribosomes disappear and the cell becomes slightly smaller

37
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Reticulocyte vs reticular cell: what's the distinction?

Reticulocyte = immature RBC, reticular cell = connective-tissue cell producing reticular fibers

38
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An anemic patient has a high reticulocyte count. What does it imply?

The marrow is responding appropriately, suggesting peripheral RBC loss or destruction such as bleeding or hemolysis

39
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An anemic patient has a low reticulocyte count. What does it imply?

Inadequate marrow RBC production rather than an appropriate regenerative response

40
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Where is erythropoietin produced primarily?

Kidneys

41
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What physiologic stimulus increases renal EPO production?

Hypoxia

42
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How does EPO support early erythroid precursors?

It is anti-apoptotic, allowing more erythroid precursors to survive

43
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How does EPO affect later erythroid development?

It promotes proliferation and maturation of erythroid precursors

44
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Why can chronic kidney disease cause anemia?

Damaged kidneys produce less EPO → reduced erythropoiesis

45
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Why can recombinant EPO help CKD-associated anemia?

It replaces deficient EPO signaling and stimulates RBC production

46
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Why might chemotherapy cause anemia?

It damages rapidly proliferating marrow precursors, reducing RBC production

47
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How can EPO blood doping improve athletic performance?

More RBCs increase blood O₂-carrying capacity and muscle oxygen delivery

48
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ABO blood type is determined by what RBC structures?

Surface glycoprotein antigens A and/or B

49
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Type A blood: RBC antigen and plasma antibody?

A antigen, anti-B antibody

50
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Type B blood: RBC antigen and plasma antibody?

B antigen, anti-A antibody

51
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Type AB blood: RBC antigens and plasma antibodies?

A + B antigens, neither anti-A nor anti-B

52
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Type O blood: RBC antigens and plasma antibodies?

Neither A nor B antigen, both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

53
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For packed RBC transfusion, why is type O the universal ABO donor?

Its RBCs lack A and B antigens targeted by recipient antibodies

54
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For packed RBC transfusion, why is AB the universal ABO recipient?

AB plasma lacks anti-A and anti-B antibodies

55
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Why do packed RBC transfusion rules differ from whole-blood rules?

Packed RBC rules focus on donor RBC antigens, while whole blood also transfers donor plasma antibodies

56
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What does Rh-positive mean?

Rh/D antigen is present on the RBC surface

57
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What does Rh-negative mean?

Rh/D antigen is absent from the RBC surface

58
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Do Rh-negative people normally have anti-D antibodies without exposure?

No, anti-D typically develops only after exposure to Rh-positive RBCs

59
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Why is a first Rh-positive pregnancy often less affected in an Rh-negative mother?

Maternal sensitization and anti-D production usually require prior fetal RBC exposure

60
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Why can a later Rh-positive pregnancy be dangerous after maternal sensitization?

Maternal anti-D can cross the placenta and attack fetal Rh-positive RBCs

61
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What prevents Rh sensitization in an Rh-negative mother?

Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) prophylaxis

62
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What does agglutination with anti-A reagent indicate during blood typing?

The patient's RBCs express A antigen

63
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What does agglutination with anti-B reagent indicate?

The patient's RBCs express B antigen

64
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Agglutination with anti-A and anti-B indicates what ABO type?

AB

65
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No agglutination with anti-A or anti-B indicates what ABO type?

O

66
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What does mean corpuscular volume (MCV) classify?

RBC size as microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic

67
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What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia in this lecture?

Iron deficiency

68
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Why are RBCs pale in iron-deficiency anemia?

Impaired hemoglobin synthesis causes hypochromia and increased central pallor

69
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Microcytic + pale RBCs + increased central pallor suggests what?

Iron-deficiency anemia

70
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Normocytic anemia + high reticulocytes suggests what broad mechanism?

Peripheral RBC loss or destruction with an appropriate marrow response

71
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What causes of normocytic anemia with high reticulocytes does Moffett mention?

Acute blood loss and sickle cell anemia

72
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Normocytic anemia + low reticulocytes suggests what broad mechanism?

Insufficient RBC production

73
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What causes of low-reticulocyte normocytic anemia does Moffett mention?

EPO deficiency, bone marrow failure, and leukemia

74
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What is the major cellular problem in megaloblastic/macrocytic anemia?

Cell division lags behind cytoplasmic development, producing oversized RBC precursors and cells

75
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Which deficiency is emphasized as a cause of macrocytic/megaloblastic anemia?

Vitamin B12 deficiency

76
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What other major cause of macrocytosis does Moffett mention?

Alcohol use disorder

77
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What are platelets structurally?

Cytoplasmic fragments derived from megakaryocytes, not complete cells

78
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What is the approximate platelet lifespan?

About 10 days

79
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What is the principal function of platelets?

Hemostasis by limiting bleeding and helping form clots

80
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What cell produces platelets?

Megakaryocyte

81
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How many platelets can a mature megakaryocyte release?

Thousands of cytoplasmic platelet fragments

82
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How is a megakaryocyte recognized histologically?

Very large marrow cell with a complex multilobed nucleus

83
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What 4 platelet zones does Moffett describe?

Peripheral, structural, organelle, and membrane zones

84
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What is important about the platelet peripheral zone?

It contains membrane and glycocalyx components involved in coagulation

85
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What is the platelet structural zone composed mainly of?

Microtubules and actin that maintain the platelet's disk shape

86
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What does the platelet organelle zone contain?

The platelet's organelles and granule-containing central region

87
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What structures characterize the platelet membrane zone?

Open canalicular system plus dense tubular system involved in Ca²⁺ handling

88
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How do platelets appear relative to RBCs on a smear?

Much smaller, more basophilic, with hazy or indeterminate borders

89
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What initially triggers platelet adhesion during vessel injury?

Vessel damage exposes underlying connective tissue to circulating platelets

90
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What platelet-released mediator causes vasoconstriction?

Serotonin

91
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What mediators recruit and activate additional platelets in Moffett's lecture?

ADP and thromboxane

92
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How does aspirin interfere with platelet function?

It inhibits thromboxane production, impairing normal platelet recruitment and aggregation

93
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What forms the primary hemostatic plug?

Aggregated platelets themselves

94
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What forms the secondary hemostatic plug?

Fibrin stabilizing the platelet plug

95
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What platelet product helps repair damaged endothelium?

Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

96
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What plasma protein is converted into fibrin during clot formation?

Fibrinogen

97
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Where is fibrinogen synthesized?

Hepatocytes

98
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What dissolves a clot after endothelial repair?

tPA activates plasminogen → plasmin, which promotes clot breakdown

99
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Thrombus vs embolus?

Thrombus = stationary intravascular clot, embolus = detached traveling material or clot

100
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Why is an embolus clinically dangerous?

It can travel and obstruct a distant blood vessel