Systems Module 105X - FINAL ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS VALIDATION (ESV)

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component on the 737-800?

A. 8 knots

B. 9 knots

C. 10 knots

D. 12 knots

C. 10 knots

What is the maximum operating altitude of the 737-800?

A. 40,000 density altitude

B. 40,000 pressure altitude

C. 41,000 density altitude

D. 41,000 pressure altitude

D. 41,000 pressure altitude

What is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude of the 737-800?

A. 8,200 density altitude

B. 8,200 pressure altitude

C. 8,400 density altitude

D. 8,400 pressure altitude

D. 8,400 pressure altitude

What is the maximum crosswind limit for the 737-800 (including gusts)?

A. 31 knots

B. 33 knots

C. 35 knots

D. 37 knots

B. 33 knots

What is the severe turbulent air penetration speed on the 737-800?

A. 270 KIAS/.76 M whichever is lower.

B. 280 KIAS/.74 M whichever is lower.

C. 280 KIAS/.76 M, whichever is lower

C. 280 KIAS/.76 M, whichever is lower

Are you permitted to use aileron trim while the autopilot is engaged?

A. Yes

B. No

B. No

At what altitude may you engage the autopilot on takeoff?

A. 200 AGL

B. 300 AGL

C. 400 AGL

D. 500 AGL

C. 400 AGL

For single channel operation during approach, at what altitude must the autopilot be

disengaged.

A. 25 AGL

B. 50 AGL

C. 75 AGL

D. 100 AGL

B. 50 AGL

What are the maximum allowable winds (knots) for AUTOLAND Operations:

(#Headwind, #Crosswind, #Tailwind)

A. (20, 20,10)

B. (25, 20, 10)

C. (25, 25, 15)

B. (25, 20, 10)

The use of LVL CHG on Final Approach or while being vectored below 1,000 ft AFE is

within operations limitations.

A. True

B. False

B. False

Engine ignition must be ON for the following operations… Takeoff, Landing, Operation

in Heavy Rain, and Anti-Ice Operation.

A. True

B. False

A. True

What is the APU Bleed maximum altitude (including electrical load)?

A. 8,000 ft.

B. 10,000 ft.

C. 12,000 ft.

B. 10,000 ft.

What is the APU Bleed maximum altitude (excluding electrical load)?

A. 15,000 ft.

B. 16,000 ft.

C. 17,000 ft.

D. 18,000 ft.

C. 17,000 ft.

What is the maximum altitude the 737-800 can operate at, with its flaps extended?

A. 18,000 ft.

B. 18,500 ft.

C. 19,000 ft.

D. 20,000 ft.

D. 20,000 ft.

Random fuel imbalance must not exceed (…) for taxi, takeoff, flight or landing.

A. 1,000 lbs.

B. 1,100 lbs.

C. 1,200 lbs.

A. 1,000 lbs.

Can you use the Terrain Display for navigation during flight?

A. Yes

B. No

B. No

What is the minimum required width of pavement for a 180-degree turn?

A. 78.2 ft.

B. 79.7 ft.

C. 79.9 ft.

D. 80.1 ft.

B. 79.7 ft.

Where are the LANDING, RUNWAY TURNOFF and TAXI light switches located? (VOL 2 / 1.3.8/1.4.2)

A. Forward Overhead panel (lower edge, Captain side)

B. Forward Overhead panel (lower edge, F/O side)

A. Forward Overhead panel (lower edge, Captain side)

Where are the POSITION, ANTI-COLLISION, WING, and WHEEL WELL light

switches located? (VOL 2 / 1.3.8/1.4.2)

A. Forward Overhead panel (lower edge, Captain side)

B. Forward Overhead panel (lower edge, F/O side)

B. Forward Overhead panel (lower edge, F/O side)

Describe the function of the emergency exit lights switch in the ARMED

(guarded position).

A. Prevents emergency lights system operation if airplane electrical power fails or is turned off.

B. All emergency lights illuminate automatically if: - Airplane electrical power

fails or - AC Power is turned off.

C. All emergency lights illuminate.

B. All emergency lights illuminate automatically if: - Airplane electrical power

fails or - AC Power is turned off.

Which flight attendant’s panel can the emergency lights be activated from? (VOL 2 /

1.4.3.2)

A. Aft

B. Front

A. Aft

The emergency lights can be activated from the flight attendant panel regardless of flight deck switch position. (VOL 1.4.3.2)

A. True

B. False

A. True

How many over-wing exit doors are located in the passenger cabin? (VOL 2 /

1.5.10.1/1.5.10.2)

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

B. 4

How many passenger entry doors and cabin service doors are on the 737-800

aircraft? (VOL 2 / 1.5.10.1/1.5.10.2)

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 1

C. 2 and 2

D. 3 and 2

C. 2 and 2

Where are door warning light indications located in the flight deck? (VOL 2 / 1.4.5.2)

A. Forward Overhead Panel (Center 4th Column)

B. Forward Overhead Panel (Center 3rd Column)

C. Aft Overhead Panel (Center 4th Column)

D. Aft Overhead Panel (Center 3rd Column)

A. Forward Overhead Panel (Center 4th Column)

Is a MASTER CAUTION Light triggered when a door annunciator light is illuminated

in the Overhead Panel? (VOL 2 / 1.4.5.2)

A. Yes

B. No

A. Yes

Where are the Passenger Oxygen system controls and indicators located on the

flight deck? (VOL 2 / 1.4.6.1)

A. Forward Overhead Panel (Center)

B. Aft Overhead Panel (Center)

C. Forward Overhead Panel (F/O side)

D. Aft Overhead Panel (Captain side)

B. Aft Overhead Panel (Center)

At what cabin altitude does the PASS OXYGEN switch in the NORMAL position,

activate and drop masks? (VOL 2 / 1.4.6.1)

A. 12,500

B. 13,500

C. 13,999

D. 14,000

D. 14,000

Once the Passenger Oxygen system is activated, will the “PASS OXY ON” light

illuminate therefore triggering a MASTER CAUTION light? (VOL 2 / 1.4.6.1/15.2.3.1.2)

A. YES

B. NO

A. YES

Once the Passenger Oxygen system is deployed and a passenger activates the

flow of oxygen by pulling down on the mask, is the flow of oxygen able to be stopped? (VOL 2 / 1.4.6.1/15.2.3.1.2)

A. YES

B. NO

B. NO

Once the Passenger Oxygen system is activated and the flow of oxygen is

started approximately how long will the oxygen last? (VOL 2 / 1.4.6.1/15.2.3.1.2)

A. 10 Minutes

B. 12 Minutes

C. 14 Minutes

D. 15 Minutes

B. 12 Minutes

What will cause an intermittent takeoff configuration warning?

A. Speed brake lever in the down position

B. Stabilizer trim set in the takeoff range

C. Both left and right trailing edge flaps are not in the commanded position

C. Both left and right trailing edge flaps are not in the commanded position

Where does the Stall Warning System “Stick Shaker” get its stall indication from?

A. Physical stall warning system on the right wing.

B. Artificially through the AOA sensor through the Air Data Computer.

B. Artificially through the AOA sensor through the Air Data Computer.

is the stall warning stick shaker Armed on the ground?

A. Yes

B. No

B. No

The stall warning stick shaker is armed above 300 KIAS

A. True

B. False

A. True

What arms the stick shaker after takeoff.

A. Weight on Wheels Sensor

B. Airspeed above 100 KIAS

C. Altitude above 1,000 AGL

A. Weight on Wheels Sensor

A dotted RED or AMBER terrain alerting color means…?

A. Terrain is below aircraft's altitude

B. No data available

C. Aircraft is heading for a conflict

C. Aircraft is heading for a conflict

How can you silence the overspeed warning system?

A. Pull over speed fuse

B. Reduce airspeed below Vmo/Mmo

C. Disable autothrottles

B. Reduce airspeed below Vmo/Mmo

Recall the indications when approaching an MCP selected altitude.

A. WHITE box around the current altitude between 750 and 200 feet before reaching altitude

B. Green box around the current altitude between 750 and 200 feet before reaching altitude

C. Red box around the current altitude between 750 and 200 feet before reaching altitude

A. WHITE box around the current altitude between 750 and 200 feet before reaching altitude

What happens when deviating from an MCP selected altitude?

A. When deviating by more than 400 feet, a momentary tone sounds, and current altitude box turns amber

B. When deviating by more than 200 feet, a momentary tone sounds, and current altitude box turns amber

C. When deviating by more than 200 feet, a momentary tone sounds, and current altitude box turns WHITE

B. When deviating by more than 200 feet, a momentary tone sounds, and current altitude box turns amber

Which of the following indicates an engine overheat? (VOL 2 / 8.1.3)

A. The related ENG OVERHEAT light illuminates

B. The OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminates

C. Both MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

An illuminated Engine Fire Warning Switch switch… (VOL 2 / 8.1.1)

A. Indicates a fire in related engine

B. Unlocks the related engine fire warning switch

C. Illuminates the Master FIRE WARN lights and sounds the FIRE warning bell

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

When the Engine Fire Warning Switch is in the normal (down) position, the switch is

mechanically locked into place when there is no fire signal. (VOL 2 / 8.1.1)

A. True

B. False

A. True

Which of the following occur when the Engine Fire Warning Switch is in the UP

position? (VOL 2 / 8.1.1)

A. Discharges one squib into the related engine

B. Arms one discharge squib on each engine fire extinguisher

C. Allows engine fire warning switch to rotate

B. Arms one discharge squib on each engine fire extinguisher

C. Allows engine fire warning switch to rotate

How is the related fire bottle discharged when the Engine Fire Warning

Switch in the UP position? (VOL 2 / 8.1.1)

A. Push engine fire warning switch back into normal position

B. Fire bottle is automatically discharged when pulled to UP position

C. Rotate switch either to the left or right

C. Rotate switch either to the left or right

Which of the following is true when the RED APU Fire Warning Switch light is

illuminated? (VOL 2 / 8.1.1)

A. Indicates a fire in APU

B. Unlocks APU fire warning switch

C. Master FIRE WARN lights illuminate and fire warning bell sounds

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

When the APU Fire Warning Switch is in normal (down) position the switch is

mechanically locked into place if there is no fire signal. (VOL 2 / 8.1.1)

A. True

B. False

A. True

Explain the function of the Detector Select (DET SELECT) switches on the Cargo Fire

Panel.

A. NORM - detection loop A and B are active.

B. A - detection loop A is active.

C. B - detection loop B is active.

D. The Fire System Is INOP

A. NORM - detection loop A and B are active.

B. A - detection loop A is active.

C. B - detection loop B is active.

In the event that an engine fire occurs, which of the following are true?

A. The related Engine Fire Warning switch illuminates.

B. Both Master FIRE WARN lights illuminate.

C. The Fire Warning Bell sounds.

D. All related engine Overheat alert indications illuminate.

E. All of the Above

E. All of the Above

What color does a Mode Selector Switch illuminated on the MCP (Mode Control

Panel) display when selected? (VOL 2 / 4.2.2.1)

A. White

B. Green

C. Amber

B. Green

When the Master (MA) F/D indicator light is illuminated with

both A/Ps engaged in CMD, which A/P is the MASTER FCC?

A. First A/P Engaged

B. Second A/P Engaged

C. Both A/P Engaged

A. First A/P Engaged

How do you Disengage the Autothrottles? (Select all correct answers.) (VOL 2/

4.2.1,4.2.3, 4.2.3.1, 4.2.3.2)

A. Move the A/T Arm switch to OFF

B. Manually moving the throttles

C. Pushing either A/T Disengage Switch on the Throttles

A. Move the A/T Arm switch to OFF

C. Pushing either A/T Disengage Switch on the Throttles

What does GREEN represent in the FMA? (Select all correct answers.) ( VOL 2/

4.1.9)

A. Engaged Mode

B. Armed mode

C. Captured Mode

D. Standby mode

A. Engaged Mode

C. Captured Mode

When does a GREEN box (Mode Change Highlight Symbol) indicate on the FMA?

(VOL 2/ 4.1.9)

A. After each engagement for a period of 5 seconds

B. It doesn't occur

C. After each engagement for a period of 10 second

D. After each engagement for a period of 15 seconds

C. After each engagement for a period of 10 second

What does the color WHITE Indicate on the FMA? (VOL 2/ 4.1.9)

A. Engaged Mode

B. Captured Mode

C. Standby mode

D. Armed Mode

D. Armed Mode

Explain the CMD AFDS autopilot status annunciation?

(VOL 2/ 4.1.9, 4.2.2.6)

A. One or both autopilots are armed

B. One or both autopilots are engaged

C. One or both autopilots are disengaged

B. One or both autopilots are engaged

What does the FD AFDS status indication mean in the A/P

status display?

A. One or both autopilots are engaged.

B. The Flight Director is ON and the autopilot is either Engaged or OFF in CWS.

C. Pitch mode engaged in CWS.

D. Roll mode engaged in CWS.

B. The Flight Director is ON and the autopilot is either Engaged or OFF in CWS.

Explain SINGLE CH (AMBER) AFDS autopilot status annunciation? (VOL 2/ 4.1.9,

4.2.2.6)

A. Single ILS approach when localizer is captured

B. Single ILS approach before localizer is captured

C. Extinguishes when pitch monitor confidence test is successfully completed for Dual A/P ILS approach

A. Single ILS approach when localizer is captured

C. Extinguishes when pitch monitor confidence test is successfully completed for Dual A/P ILS approach

Explain SINGLE CH (GREEN) AFDS autopilot status annunciation? (VOL 2/ 4.1.9,

4.2.2.6)

A. Is not Indicated on an IAN approach

B. Annunciates after FAC is captured

C. Remains on until AP is disengaged or 100 feet RA

D. Remains on until AP is disengaged or 50 feet RA

B. Annunciates after FAC is captured

C. Remains on until AP is disengaged or 100 feet RA

Explain AUTOPILOT (Flashing AMBER) AFDS autopilot status annunciation? (VOL

2/ 4.1.9, 4.2.2.6)

A. Autopilot remains engaged below 50 feet RA for an IAN approach

B. Autopilot remains engaged below 100 feet RA for an IAN approach

C. Autopilot remains engaged below 150 feet RA for an IAN approach

B. Autopilot remains engaged below 100 feet RA for an IAN approach

Which of the following must be established or set before a second autopilot can be

engaged? (Select all correct answers.) (VOL 2 / 4.1.4)

A. Both VHF NAV receivers tuned to valid ILS frequency

B. One VHF NAV receiver tuned to ILS frequency

C. Approach Mode (APP) selected on the MCP

A. Both VHF NAV receivers tuned to valid ILS frequency

C. Approach Mode (APP) selected on the MCP

When the Autothrottle is disengaged? (VOL 2? 4.1.7)

A. Flashing Green A/T P/RST light on forward panel

B. Flashing Amber A/T P/RST light on forward panel

C. Flashing Red A/T P/RST light on forward panel

C. Flashing Red A/T P/RST light on forward panel

What happens on an approach when TO/GA is selected below 2000 feet RA when no A/P is engaged or single A/P engaged? (VOL 2/ 4.2.4.6, 4.2.4.6.1, 4.2.4.6.2)

A. No Autopilot or Single Autopilot Engaged: Disconnects Autopilot (If Engaged),

Requires Manual F/D Go Around

B. Both A/Ps Engaged: (with FLARE ARMED on the FMA): A/P Go-Around Mode is Activated. A/Ps remain engaged

C. Nothing happens

D. Disconnects autopilot (if engaged and requires no F/D go around

A. No Autopilot or Single Autopilot Engaged: Disconnects Autopilot (If Engaged),

Requires Manual F/D Go Around

B. Both A/Ps Engaged: (with FLARE ARMED on the FMA): A/P Go-Around Mode is Activated. A/Ps remain engaged

What is the difference in commanded thrust when selecting TO/GA Button Once

versus Twice during a go-around? (with FLARE armed on the FMA)? (VOL 2/ 4.2.4.6, 4.2.4.6.1, 4.2.4.6.2)

A. First push: A/T provides reduced Go-Around N1 to produce 1000 to 2000 fpm rate of climb

B. Manual go-around required

C. Second push: A/T advances to the full Go Around N1 limit

A. First push: A/T provides reduced Go-Around N1 to produce 1000 to 2000 fpm rate of climb

C. Second push: A/T advances to the full Go Around N1 limit

Recall the Flight Mode Annunciations (FMA) that are displayed above the Attitude Indicator on the PFD. From left to right, which FMAs match which classifier? (left to right) (VOL 2 / 4.1.9)

A. Pitch, Roll, Autothrottle

B. Roll, Pitch Autothrottle

C. Autothrottle, Roll, Pitch

D. Autothrottle, Pitch, Roll

C. Autothrottle, Roll, Pitch

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Autothrottle Modes.

N1

Autothrottle maintains thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display, including full go-around N1 limit.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Autothrottle Modes.

GA

Autothrottle maintains thrust at reduced go–around setting

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Autothrottle Modes.

RETARD

Displayed while autothrottle moves thrust levers to the aft stop.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Autothrottle Modes.

FMC SPD

Autothrottle maintains speed commanded by the FMC.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Autothrottle Modes.

MCP SPD

Autothrottle maintains speed set in the MCP IAS/MACH display.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Autothrottle Modes.

THR HLD

The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can set the thrust

levers manually.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Autothrottle Modes.

ARM (White)

No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are

inhibited; the pilot can set thrust levers manually. Minimum speed protection

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

TO/GA (Takeoff)

Engaged for takeoff by turning both F/D switches ON and pushing either

TO/GA switch.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

TO/GA (Go-Around)

Engaged for go–around by pushing the TO/GA switch under the

following conditions:

a. In flight below 2000 feet radio altitude, or

b. In flight above 2000 feet radio altitude with flaps not up or G/S captured not in takeoff mode

c. Either F/D ON or OFF.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

VNAV SPD

The AFDS maintains the FMC speed displayed on the airspeed indicator

and/or the CDU CLIMB or DESCENT pages.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

VNAV PTH

The AFDS maintains FMC altitude or descent path with pitch commands.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

V/S (Engaged)

commands pitch to hold selected vertical speed.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

V/S (Armed)

V/S mode can be engaged by moving Vertical Speed Thumbwheel

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

ALT ACQ

Transition maneuver entered automatically from a V/S, LVL CHG, or VNAV

climb or descent to selected MCP altitude. Engages but does not annunciate during VNAV transition.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

ALT HOLD

Commands pitch to hold MCP selected altitude or uncorrected barometric

altitude at which ALT HOLD switch was pushed.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

MCP SPD

Pitch commands maintain IAS/MACH window airspeed or Mach

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

G/S (Armed)

The AFDS is armed for G/S capture

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

G/S (Engaged)

The AFDS follows the ILS glideslope.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

FLARE (Armed)

During a dual A/P ILS approach, FLARE is displayed after LOC and G/S

capture and below 1500 feet RA. The second A/P couples with the flight controls and A/P go–around mode arms.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

FLARE (Engaged)

During a dual A/P ILS approach, flare engages at 50feet radio altitude. FLARE accomplishes the AUTOLAND flare maneuver.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

G/P (Armed)

The AFDS is armed for G/P capture.

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Pitch Modes

G/P (Engaged)

The AFDS follows the IAN glide path

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Roll Modes. (VOL 2/ 4.2.2.7.3)

LNAV (Engaged)

The AFDS intercepts and tracks the active FMC route

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Roll Modes. (VOL 2/ 4.2.2.7.3)

LNAV (Engaged - WHITE)

The AFDS is armed (prior to takeoff) to engage LNAV at 50 feet RA

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Roll Modes. (VOL 2/ 4.2.2.7.3)

LNAV (Armed - WHITE)

In the approach phase and missed approach exists in the flight plan

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Roll Modes. (VOL 2/ 4.2.2.7.3)

HDG SEL

The airplane is turning TO or is ON the heading selected in the MCP heading

Display

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Roll Modes. (VOL 2/ 4.2.2.7.3)

VOR/LOC (Armed - WHITE)

AFDS is ARMED to capture either selected VOR or LOC course

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Roll Modes. (VOL 2/ 4.2.2.7.3)

VOR/LOC (Engaged - GREEN)

The AFDS tracks selected VOR course or tracks selected localizer course along the inbound front course bearing

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Roll Modes. (VOL 2/ 4.2.2.7.3)

FAC (Armed - WHITE)

AFDS is armed to capture the IAN final approach course

Explain the meaning of the AFDS FMA Roll Modes. (VOL 2/ 4.2.2.7.3)

FAC (Engaged - GREEN)

The AFDS tracks the IAN final approach course along the inbound course bearing

Explain the function of the SPEED Switch on the MCP. (VOL 2 /4.1.2)

A. Push – (light not illuminated)

-Engages A/T in SPEED mode if compatible with engaged AFDS modes.

-Illuminates SPEED switch light.

-Maintains speed in MCP IAS/MACH display.

B. Push – (light illuminated)

-Deselects speed mode and extinguishes switch light.

-Engages A/T in ARM mode.

C. All the Above

C. All the Above

If the IAS/MACH display is blank, the FMC computed target speed is active and

displayed on the airspeed indicator. (True/False) (VOL 2/ 4.1.2)

A. True

B. False

A. True

Explain the operation when pushing the N1 switch on the MCP when the light is

extinguished. (VOL 2/ 4.1.2)

A. Engages A/T in N1 mode if compatible with AFDS modes already engaged

B. Disengages A/T in N1 mode if compatible with AFDS modes already engaged

C. Engaged A/T in N1 mode if compatible with AFDS does with them disengaged

A. Engages A/T in N1 mode if compatible with AFDS modes already engaged

When pushing the N1 switch on the MCP (light illuminated) it deselects N1 mode and

extinguishes the switch light while also? (VOL 2/ 4.1.2)

A. Engages autothrottles

B. Engages autothrottles in ARM (White) mode

C. Disengages autothrottles

B. Engages autothrottles in ARM (White) mode

When do you push the Speed Intervention (SPD INTV) switch on the mode control

panel (MCP)? (VOL 2/ 4.1.2)

A. When APP mode is engaged.

B. When VNAV mode is engaged.

C. When LVL CHG mode is engaged.

B. When VNAV mode is engaged.