PMOC/DDD

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Last updated 11:00 AM on 9/28/26
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300 Terms

1
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Which sequence correctly follows the drug development process?

Discovery → Preclinical Studies → Clinical Studies

2
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Which of the following is an example of drug repurposing?

Sildenafil for erectile dysfunction

3
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Which of the following is considered an in vitro study?

Cytotoxicity assay in cultured cells

4
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Which stage of drug development focuses on identifying the biological process responsible for a disease?

Hit Identification

5
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Which property is NOT typically optimized during lead optimization?

Packaging

6
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Which special preclinical study evaluates the potential of a compound to cause cancer?

Carcinogenicity study

7
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High-throughput screening involves:

Robotic screening of compound libraries

8
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Which of the following is an example of natural product discovery?

Paclitaxel from the Pacific Yew Tree

9
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A molecule with promising biological activity that can be further optimized is called a:

Lead Compound

10
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Which of the following activities belongs to commercialization?

Quality control and assurance

11
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Who introduced antiseptic principles for use in surgery and post-traumatic injuries?

Joseph Lister

12
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Which compound was used by Joseph Lister to reduce postsurgical infections?

Phenol

13
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Which scientist is associated with the principle of selective toxicity?

Paul Ehrlich

14
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An agent that kills or inhibits microorganisms when applied to living tissue is called a:

Antiseptic

15
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Which of the following is applied to inanimate objects?

Disinfectant

16
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What is the mechanism of action of alcohols as local anti-infectives?

Protein and carbohydrate denaturation

17
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Which organism is used as the test organism for alcohols?

Staphylococcus aureus

18
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Which alcohol concentration is most commonly used as an antiseptic?

70%

19
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Commercial ethanol is commonly available at what concentration?

95%

20
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Which alcohol is commonly known as rubbing alcohol?

Isopropyl alcohol

21
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Ethylene oxide exerts its antimicrobial action primarily through:

Alkylation

22
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Ethylene oxide is primarily used to sterilize:

Heat-sensitive medical equipment

23
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Formalin contains not less than what percentage of formaldehyde?

37%

24
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What is the principal use of formaldehyde solution?

Embalming agent

25
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Which aldehyde is a 5-carbon dialdehyde?

Glutaraldehyde

26
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Which organism is used in determining the phenol coefficient?

Salmonella typhi

27
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At low concentrations, phenols act primarily by:

Protein denaturation

28
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At high concentrations, phenols cause:

Cell membrane lysis

29
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Which phenolic compound is also known as carbolic acid?

Phenol

30
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Eugenol is obtained from:

Clove oil

31
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The antimicrobial action of oxidizing agents is due to:

Liberation of oxygen

32
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Hydrous benzoyl peroxide is used primarily for:

Acne

33
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Which halogen-containing germicide is considered the oldest still in use today?

Iodine

34
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Lugol's solution contains:

5% iodine in water with KI

35
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Povidone-iodine is classified as a(n):

Iodophor

36
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The active antimicrobial species in chlorine-containing compounds is:

HClO

37
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Cationic surfactants are primarily:

Quaternary ammonium compounds

38
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What is the mechanism of action of cationic surfactants?

Cell membrane destabilization and lysis

39
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Which antibacterial biguanide is used for preoperative skin disinfection?

Chlorhexidine gluconate

40
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Which preservative is contraindicated in neonates?

Benzyl alcohol

41
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Mycology is the study of:

Fungi

42
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Which type of fungal infection is commonly inhaled into the lungs?

Systemic

43
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Opportunistic fungal infections are most likely to occur in:

Immunocompromised patients

44
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Which fungal infection develops beneath the skin surface?

Subcutaneous

45
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Dermatophytoses are classified as:

Cutaneous/superficial infections

46
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Tinea pedis is commonly known as:

Athlete's foot

47
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Tinea cruris affects the:

Groin

48
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Tinea capitis affects the:

Scalp

49
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Onychomycosis refers to:

Tinea unguium

50
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Tinea barbae affects the:

Beard

51
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Which fungal membrane sterol is a major antifungal target?

Ergosterol

52
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Which fungal cell wall components are common antifungal targets?

Chitin and β-glucan

53
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Which of the following is NOT listed as an antifungal target?

Protein synthesis

54
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Sebum acts as a natural antifungal because it is:

Acidic and fatty

55
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Propionic acid is naturally found in:

Perspiration

56
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Zinc propionate is used as a fungicide in:

Adhesive tapes

57
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Undecylenic acid is obtained from:

Castor oil

58
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Which agent has traditionally been used for athlete's foot?

Undecylenic acid

59
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Salicylic acid and resorcinol function primarily as:

Keratolytic antiseptics

60
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Whitfield's Ointment contains benzoic acid and:

Salicylic acid

61
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Phenolic topical antifungals act primarily by:

Disrupting membrane integrity

62
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Which is a phenolic antifungal?

Haloprogin

63
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Flucytosine inhibits:

DNA synthesis

64
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The active metabolite of flucytosine is:

5-Fluorouracil

65
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Flucytosine is synergistic with:

Amphotericin B

66
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Polyenes primarily act by:

Disrupting fungal cell membranes

67
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At low concentrations, polyenes are:

Fungistatic

68
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Amphotericin B is produced by:

Streptomyces nodosus

69
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The major adverse effect of Amphotericin B is:

Nephrotoxicity

70
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Nystatin is commonly used for:

Local candidiasis

71
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Natamycin ophthalmic suspension is used for:

Fungal keratitis

72
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Griseofulvin acts as a:

Mitotic spindle poison

73
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Which measure improves griseofulvin absorption?

Taking with fatty meals

74
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Allylamines inhibit:

Squalene epoxidase

75
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Allylamines are fungicidal against:

Dermatophytes

76
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The prototype allylamine is:

Naftifine

77
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Which allylamine is used orally for onychomycosis?

Terbinafine

78
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Which drug is active against superficial tinea infections but is NOT an allylamine?

Tolnaftate

79
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Azoles inhibit:

Lanosterol 14α-demethylase

80
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Azoles represent:

The largest class of antifungals

81
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Which imidazole is commonly used for vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Clotrimazole

82
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Which imidazole exhibits anti-androgenic effects?

Ketoconazole

83
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Ketoconazole absorption is best under:

Acidic pH

84
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Terconazole is primarily used for:

Vulvovaginal moniliasis

85
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Which triazole has increased bioavailability with food?

Itraconazole

86
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Which antifungal is the drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis?

Fluconazole

87
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Which azole readily penetrates the CSF?

Fluconazole

88
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Which triazole has broad-spectrum activity against many fungi?

Voriconazole

89
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Echinocandins inhibit:

β-(1,3)-D-glucan synthase

90
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Which of the following is an echinocandin?

Caspofungin

91
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Which statement best describes viruses?

Obligate intracellular parasites containing either DNA or RNA

92
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Which is the correct sequence of the viral infectious process?

Attachment → Penetration → Replication → Assembly → Release

93
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Acyclovir is a structural analog of:

Guanosine

94
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Which antiviral is considered the drug of choice for genital herpes?

Acyclovir

95
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Acyclovir is commonly used in the treatment of:

Chickenpox and shingles

96
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Which antiviral is considered the drug of choice for CMV retinitis?

Ganciclovir

97
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Which antiviral may be combined with antiretroviral drugs in the treatment of HIV?

Foscarnet

98
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Amantadine and rimantadine exert their antiviral activity by:

Interfering with M2 protein-mediated penetration

99
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Amantadine and rimantadine are used primarily for:

Influenza A prophylaxis

100
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Which antiviral agent also possesses anti-Parkinson's disease activity?

Amantadine