Mock exam biopsych/memory/sensation perception

66. The conversion of physical energy, like light or sound, into neural signals is called: A) Perception B) Transduction C) Habituation D) Lateral inhibition

B) Transduction. Why: Transduction is the core of sensation.

67. Recognizing your roommate's face in a crowd is an example of: A) Sensation B) Transduction C) Perception D) Sensory adaptation

C) Perception. Why: Perception is the psychological process of interpreting sensory input.

68. Which part of the eye adjusts the size of the pupil? A) Iris B) Cornea C) Lens D) Fovea

A) Iris. Why: The iris adjusts the pupil; the pupil itself is just a hole.

69. The fovea contains: A) Only rods B) Equal rods and cones C) No photoreceptors D) Only cones

D) Only cones. Why: The fovea is all cones, no rods.

70. Rods are best described as: A) Optimized for color and fine detail B) Optimized for night vision and located in the periphery C) Concentrated in the fovea D) Responsible for focusing light

B) Optimized for night vision and located in the periphery. Why: Rods: night vision, black and white, periphery.

71. The minimum amount of stimulation needed to detect a stimulus at all is the: A) Just noticeable difference B) Weber fraction C) Absolute threshold D) Sensory adaptation point

C) Absolute threshold. Why: E.g., a candle flame 30 miles away on a dark night.

72. Friends noticed an extra 2.5-lb plate on the bench-press bar about 50% of the time. This illustrates: A) Just noticeable difference B) Absolute threshold C) Habituation D) Bottom-up processing

A) Just noticeable difference. Why: JND = the smallest detectable change, often defined at 50% detection.

73. $300 off feels like a bigger deal on a $600 TV than on a $30,000 car. This reflects: A) Opponent process theory B) The uncanny valley C) Interposition D) Weber's law

D) Weber's law. Why: Weber's law: we notice proportional, not absolute, differences.

74. You stop feeling the hair tie on your wrist because your skin receptors stop responding to it. This is: A) Habituation B) Sensory adaptation C) Top-down processing D) Lateral inhibition

B) Sensory adaptation. Why: Receptor-level response to a constant stimulus = sensory adaptation.

75. You tune out background chatter at a café, but you notice it again as soon as you focus on it. This is: A) Habituation B) Sensory adaptation C) Transduction D) Binocular disparity

A) Habituation. Why: Brain-level and reversible with attention = habituation.

76. After staring at a green-and-yellow flag, you see a red, white, and blue afterimage. This is best explained by: A) Weber's law B) Trichromatic theory alone C) Opponent process theory D) Lateral inhibition

C) Opponent process theory. Why: Tired cones make you hypersensitive to the opposing colors.

77. Feeling relief and euphoria after a scary roller coaster is an emotional example of: A) Synchresis B) Opponent process theory C) Presbycusis D) The Ponzo illusion

B) Opponent process theory. Why: Overstimulation in one direction → hypersensitivity to the opposite.

78. Organizing sensory input according to prior knowledge and expectations is called: A) Bottom-up processing B) Transduction C) Sensory adaptation D) Top-down processing

D) Top-down processing. Why: Top-down processing: the broadest and most constant perceptual shortcut.

79. Newborns are often overwhelmed and exhausted because they rely almost entirely on: A) Bottom-up processing B) Top-down processing C) Opponent processes D) Monocular cues

A) Bottom-up processing. Why: They're building top-down shortcuts from scratch.

80. Flipped eyes and mouth look fairly normal on an upside-down face but disturbing on an upright face. This is the: A) Uncanny valley effect B) McGurk effect C) Thatcher effect D) Müller-Lyer illusion

C) Thatcher effect. Why: Top-down face processing is more active for upright faces.

81. A nearly photo-realistic face that still looks not quite human feels unsettling. This is the: A) Thatcher effect B) Uncanny valley effect C) Double-flash illusion D) Color afterimage effect

B) Uncanny valley effect. Why: Violated face-recognition expectations feel uncomfortable.

82. Your eyes point more sharply inward when an object is close, and the brain uses this angle for depth. This bottom-up cue is: A) Interposition B) Relative size C) Binocular disparity D) Converging parallel lines

C) Binocular disparity. Why: Binocular disparity; lose an eye's function and depth perception suffers.

83. A tree blocking part of a house tells you the tree is closer. This monocular cue is: A) Relative size B) Binocular disparity C) Lateral inhibition D) Interposition

D) Interposition. Why: Interposition: objects blocking others = closer.

84. The Ponzo illusion works because of which monocular cue? A) Parallel lines converge in the distance B) Interposition C) Binocular disparity D) Relative brightness

A) Parallel lines converge in the distance. Why: The top line seems farther away, so the brain sees it as bigger.

85. The Müller-Lyer illusion is weaker or non-existent among people: A) Over age 60 B) Raised in cultures without carpentry or architecture C) With one functioning eye D) With tinnitus

B) Raised in cultures without carpentry or architecture. Why: No corners → no learned shortcuts about corners.

86. The gray dots you see at the intersections of the Hermann grid are caused by: A) Opponent processes B) Synchresis C) Lateral inhibition D) Habituation

C) Lateral inhibition. Why: Nearby neurons suppress each other to enhance contrast.

87. Hearing "ba" while watching lips say "fa" makes you perceive "da." This is the: A) McGurk effect B) Double-flash illusion C) Rubber hand illusion D) Thatcher effect

A) McGurk effect. Why: An example of multisensory integration.

88. The brain's automatic fusion of sound and sight, making a muted video seem to fit a random song, is called: A) Transduction B) Crossmodal inhibition C) Synesthesia D) Synchresis

D) Synchresis. Why: Synchresis: we're wired to see sound-sight synchronicity.

89. In the double-flash illusion, one flash paired with two beeps looks like two flashes. This shows that: A) Vision always overrides hearing B) The brain matches the more ambiguous sight to the clearer sound C) Cones are less sensitive than rods D) Hair cells in the cochlea are damaged

B) The brain matches the more ambiguous sight to the clearer sound. Why: Crossmodal perception; it's why films add loud punch sounds.

90. Mirror-box therapy, invented by V.S. Ramachandran, treats: A) Glaucoma B) Tinnitus C) Phantom limb pain D) Macular degeneration

C) Phantom limb pain. Why: It uses multisensory integration to relieve phantom-limb pain.

91. Which condition is a clouding of the lens and is often fixed by replacing it with an artificial lens? A) Glaucoma B) Cataracts C) Diabetic retinopathy D) Macular degeneration

B) Cataracts. Why: Cataract surgery is among the most common, successful surgeries.

92. Which condition has NO early symptoms, involves optic nerve damage from increased pressure, and causes permanent loss? A) Glaucoma B) Cataracts C) Presbycusis D) Tinnitus

A) Glaucoma. Why: Get regular testing over 60; lost vision can't be restored.

93. A person loses central vision and struggles to read and recognize faces, but their peripheral vision is intact. This is most likely: A) Cataracts B) Glaucoma C) Diabetic retinopathy D) Macular degeneration

D) Macular degeneration. Why: Damage to the macula (fovea) → central vision loss.

94. Noise-induced hearing loss happens when: A) The lens clouds over B) Hair cells in the cochlea die C) The optic nerve is compressed D) Rods stop responding

B) Hair cells in the cochlea die. Why: NIHL is irreversible.

95. The "60/60 rule" for preventing hearing loss means: A) Volume at or below 60%, for no more than 60 minutes at a time B) No more than 60 dB for 60 hours C) Getting tested every 60 days after age 60 D) Earplugs at concerts over 60 dB

A) Volume at or below 60%, for no more than 60 minutes at a time. Why: From the noise-induced hearing loss prevention slide.

96. According to NIOSH, hearing protection becomes mandatory at work above: A) 60 dB B) 70 dB C) 85 dB D) 120 dB

C) 85 dB. Why: No louder than 85 dB over 8 hours.

97. Why is leaving presbycusis (age-related hearing loss) untreated a problem? A) It causes cataracts B) It always leads to tinnitus C) It reverses with time D) It is a risk factor for cognitive decline, and treatment slows that decline

D) It is a risk factor for cognitive decline, and treatment slows that decline. Why: Less auditory input → brain atrophy and social isolation; hearing aids help.

1. What is the main functional unit of the nervous system? A) A nerve B) A neuron C) A synapse D) A vesicle

B) A neuron. Why: Neurons are defined on the slides as the main functional unit of the nervous system.

2. Approximately how many neurons are in the human brain? A) 85 million B) 8.5 billion C) 85 billion D) 850 billion

C) 85 billion. Why: The slide gives ~85,000,000,000 (85 billion).

3. A nerve is best described as: A) A single neuron's axon B) A bundle of neurons used for bodily sensation and movement C) The gap between two neurons D) A chemical messenger

B) A bundle of neurons used for bodily sensation and movement. Why: Btw slide: a nerve is a bundle of neurons for sensation and movement.

4. Afferent neurons carry signals in which direction? A) Brain to body B) Body to brain C) Only between interneurons D) Only within the cerebral cortex

B) Body to brain. Why: Afferent = sensory = body → brain.

5. Which best describes an action potential? A) A chemical impulse caused by electrical reactions B) An electrical impulse that causes a neuron to release neurotransmitters at its terminal buttons C) A hormone released by the pituitary gland D) The space between two neurons

B) An electrical impulse that causes a neuron to release neurotransmitters at its terminal buttons. Why: Action potentials are electrical impulses that trigger neurotransmitter release (and are caused by chemical reactions).

6. The synapse is: A) The long fiber of a neuron B) The storage sac for neurotransmitters C) The cell body of a neuron D) The tiny space where the terminal button of one neuron meets the dendrite of another

D) The tiny space where the terminal button of one neuron meets the dendrite of another. Why: Defined in the red box on the action potential slide.

7. According to the synapse diagram, neurotransmission is terminated by all of the following EXCEPT: A) Reuptake B) Enzyme deactivation C) Autoreception D) Vesicle fusion

D) Vesicle fusion. Why: Vesicle fusion releases neurotransmitters (step 3); it doesn't end transmission.

8. Autoreceptors: A) Detect the amount of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft, which governs the presynaptic neuron's activity B) Destroy neurotransmitters in the cleft C) Are located only on the dendrites of the receiving neuron D) Generate action potentials in the axon

A) Detect the amount of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft, which governs the presynaptic neuron's activity. Why: Autoreceptors monitor the cleft and tell the presynaptic neuron to make more or less.

9. Alzheimer's disease is associated with a deficiency in which neurotransmitter? A) Dopamine B) GABA C) Acetylcholine D) Serotonin

C) Acetylcholine. Why: ACh slide: Alzheimer's = ACh deficiency.

10. Which neurotransmitter is excitatory, the most prevalent in the brain, and shut down by alcohol? A) GABA B) Serotonin C) Endorphins D) Glutamate

D) Glutamate. Why: Glutamate gets your brain to GO and is the most prevalent; alcohol shuts it down.

11. Problems with GABA are most closely related to: A) Parkinson's disease B) Anxiety C) Pain relief D) Muscle contractions

B) Anxiety. Why: GABA slide: problems relate to anxiety; Valium is a GABA agonist.

12. Cocaine blocks the reuptake of dopamine. This makes cocaine: A) A dopamine agonist B) A dopamine antagonist C) An autoreceptor D) A GABA agonist

A) A dopamine agonist. Why: Blocking reuptake leaves more dopamine in the synapse, increasing its effects.

13. Curare, a poison, blocks acetylcholine. Curare is therefore: A) An acetylcholine agonist B) An acetylcholine antagonist C) An endorphin mimic D) A reuptake inhibitor

B) An acetylcholine antagonist. Why: Blocking a neurotransmitter decreases its effects = antagonist.

14. A drug mimics a neurotransmitter and binds to its receptors just enough to block the real neurotransmitter from binding. This drug is a(n): A) Agonist B) Reuptake inhibitor C) Autoreceptor D) Antagonist

D) Antagonist. Why: Pink antagonist box: mimics to block binding.

15. Opioids and opiates mimic which neurotransmitter? A) Serotonin B) Endorphins C) Norepinephrine D) Glutamate

B) Endorphins. Why: Drug table: opioids/opiates mimic endorphins (agonists).

16. Which brainstem structure governs breathing and reflexes? A) Pons B) Reticular formation C) Medulla D) Thalamus

C) Medulla. Why: Medulla = breathing and reflexes (hindbrain).

17. The brainstem is mainly responsible for: A) Automatic survival processes like breathing, heartbeat, and swallowing B) Language comprehension C) Vision D) Fear and anxiety

A) Automatic survival processes like breathing, heartbeat, and swallowing. Why: Brainstem functions box: automatic survival processes.

18. After an injury, a patient has trouble with balance and coordinating movement. Which structure was most likely damaged? A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebellum C) Occipital lobe D) Amygdala

B) Cerebellum. Why: Cerebellum = balance, movement, coordination.

19. The cerebral cortex makes up about what percentage of human brain mass? A) 20% B) 30% C) 80% D) 70%

C) 80%. Why: 80% for humans; 70% chimps; 30% rats; 20% is energy use.

20. Damage to the occipital lobe can cause: A) Hallucinations B) Loss of touch sensation C) Inability to produce speech D) Loss of appetite

A) Hallucinations. Why: Occipital fun fact #1.

21. Which lobe's major function is tactile sensation (touch, pressure, pain)? A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Occipital D) Parietal

D) Parietal. Why: Parietal lobe = tactile sensation.

22. The temporal lobe's major functions are: A) Thinking, fine motor skills, self-regulation B) Hearing, language, memory C) Vision D) Breathing and heartbeat

B) Hearing, language, memory. Why: Temporal = hearing, language, memory (includes hippocampus and amygdala).

23. A person has trouble with impulse control and self-regulation after a brain injury. Which lobe was most likely affected? A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Occipital D) Temporal

A) Frontal. Why: Frontal lobe = thinking, fine motor skills, self-regulation.

24. A patient fluently says, "Please get me some milk from the air conditioner." This is most consistent with: A) Broca's aphasia B) Anterograde amnesia C) Wernicke's aphasia D) Retrograde amnesia

C) Wernicke's aphasia. Why: Wernicke's aphasia: words pronounced correctly but misused; comprehension is impaired.

25. A patient understands everything said to her but can only say "tan tan tan." Which area is most likely damaged? A) Wernicke's area B) Broca's area C) The hippocampus D) The cerebellum

B) Broca's area. Why: Broca's area = production; Broca's aphasia leaves comprehension intact.

26. The hypothalamus regulates all of the following EXCEPT: A) Hunger B) Thirst C) Body temperature D) Language comprehension

D) Language comprehension. Why: Hypothalamus = primal urges; language comprehension is Wernicke's area.

27. Which limbic structure is described as an "emotion center" involved in fear and anxiety? A) Amygdala B) Hippocampus C) Thalamus D) Pons

A) Amygdala. Why: Amygdala: fear, anxiety, reward/punishment learning, mood.

28. Which structure is the origin of dopamine signals in the reward pathway? A) Nucleus accumbens B) Prefrontal cortex C) Ventral tegmental area (VTA) D) Pituitary gland

C) Ventral tegmental area (VTA). Why: VTA = origin of dopamine signals.

29. In Olds & Milner (1954), the electrode was implanted into the rat's: A) Amygdala B) Medial forebrain bundle C) Occipital lobe D) Cerebellum

B) Medial forebrain bundle. Why: Highlighted on the slide: the MFB, the dopamine superhighway.

30. In human self-stimulation studies, which site produced intense euphoria and the HIGHEST self-stimulation (1,500+ presses in 3 hours)? A) Nucleus accumbens B) Septal area C) Lateral hypothalamus D) Medulla

A) Nucleus accumbens. Why: Nucleus accumbens: intense pleasure, high frequency.

31. Which dopamine pathway is associated with pleasure, reward seeking, and addiction? A) Nigrostriatal B) Mesocortical C) Reticular D) Mesolimbic

D) Mesolimbic. Why: Mesolimbic = pleasure and reward seeking, addiction, emotion, perception.

1. What is the main functional unit of the nervous system? A) A nerve B) A neuron C) A synapse D) A vesicle

B) A neuron. Why: Neurons are defined on the slides as the main functional unit of the nervous system.

2. Approximately how many neurons are in the human brain? A) 85 million B) 8.5 billion C) 85 billion D) 850 billion

C) 85 billion. Why: The slide gives ~85,000,000,000 (85 billion).

3. A nerve is best described as: A) A single neuron's axon B) A bundle of neurons used for bodily sensation and movement C) The gap between two neurons D) A chemical messenger

B) A bundle of neurons used for bodily sensation and movement. Why: Btw slide: a nerve is a bundle of neurons for sensation and movement.

4. Afferent neurons carry signals in which direction? A) Brain to body B) Body to brain C) Only between interneurons D) Only within the cerebral cortex

B) Body to brain. Why: Afferent = sensory = body → brain.

5. Which best describes an action potential? A) A chemical impulse caused by electrical reactions B) An electrical impulse that causes a neuron to release neurotransmitters at its terminal buttons C) A hormone released by the pituitary gland D) The space between two neurons

B) An electrical impulse that causes a neuron to release neurotransmitters at its terminal buttons. Why: Action potentials are electrical impulses that trigger neurotransmitter release (and are caused by chemical reactions).

6. The synapse is: A) The long fiber of a neuron B) The storage sac for neurotransmitters C) The cell body of a neuron D) The tiny space where the terminal button of one neuron meets the dendrite of another

D) The tiny space where the terminal button of one neuron meets the dendrite of another. Why: Defined in the red box on the action potential slide.

7. According to the synapse diagram, neurotransmission is terminated by all of the following EXCEPT: A) Reuptake B) Enzyme deactivation C) Autoreception D) Vesicle fusion

D) Vesicle fusion. Why: Vesicle fusion releases neurotransmitters (step 3); it doesn't end transmission.

8. Autoreceptors: A) Detect the amount of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft, which governs the presynaptic neuron's activity B) Destroy neurotransmitters in the cleft C) Are located only on the dendrites of the receiving neuron D) Generate action potentials in the axon

A) Detect the amount of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft, which governs the presynaptic neuron's activity. Why: Autoreceptors monitor the cleft and tell the presynaptic neuron to make more or less.

9. Alzheimer's disease is associated with a deficiency in which neurotransmitter? A) Dopamine B) GABA C) Acetylcholine D) Serotonin

C) Acetylcholine. Why: ACh slide: Alzheimer's = ACh deficiency.

10. Which neurotransmitter is excitatory, the most prevalent in the brain, and shut down by alcohol? A) GABA B) Serotonin C) Endorphins D) Glutamate

D) Glutamate. Why: Glutamate gets your brain to GO and is the most prevalent; alcohol shuts it down.

11. Problems with GABA are most closely related to: A) Parkinson's disease B) Anxiety C) Pain relief D) Muscle contractions

B) Anxiety. Why: GABA slide: problems relate to anxiety; Valium is a GABA agonist.

12. Cocaine blocks the reuptake of dopamine. This makes cocaine: A) A dopamine agonist B) A dopamine antagonist C) An autoreceptor D) A GABA agonist

A) A dopamine agonist. Why: Blocking reuptake leaves more dopamine in the synapse, increasing its effects.

13. Curare, a poison, blocks acetylcholine. Curare is therefore: A) An acetylcholine agonist B) An acetylcholine antagonist C) An endorphin mimic D) A reuptake inhibitor

B) An acetylcholine antagonist. Why: Blocking a neurotransmitter decreases its effects = antagonist.

14. A drug mimics a neurotransmitter and binds to its receptors just enough to block the real neurotransmitter from binding. This drug is a(n): A) Agonist B) Reuptake inhibitor C) Autoreceptor D) Antagonist

D) Antagonist. Why: Pink antagonist box: mimics to block binding.

15. Opioids and opiates mimic which neurotransmitter? A) Serotonin B) Endorphins C) Norepinephrine D) Glutamate

B) Endorphins. Why: Drug table: opioids/opiates mimic endorphins (agonists).

16. Which brainstem structure governs breathing and reflexes? A) Pons B) Reticular formation C) Medulla D) Thalamus

C) Medulla. Why: Medulla = breathing and reflexes (hindbrain).

17. The brainstem is mainly responsible for: A) Automatic survival processes like breathing, heartbeat, and swallowing B) Language comprehension C) Vision D) Fear and anxiety

A) Automatic survival processes like breathing, heartbeat, and swallowing. Why: Brainstem functions box: automatic survival processes.

18. After an injury, a patient has trouble with balance and coordinating movement. Which structure was most likely damaged? A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebellum C) Occipital lobe D) Amygdala

B) Cerebellum. Why: Cerebellum = balance, movement, coordination.

19. The cerebral cortex makes up about what percentage of human brain mass? A) 20% B) 30% C) 80% D) 70%

C) 80%. Why: 80% for humans; 70% chimps; 30% rats; 20% is energy use.

20. Damage to the occipital lobe can cause: A) Hallucinations B) Loss of touch sensation C) Inability to produce speech D) Loss of appetite

A) Hallucinations. Why: Occipital fun fact #1.

21. Which lobe's major function is tactile sensation (touch, pressure, pain)? A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Occipital D) Parietal

D) Parietal. Why: Parietal lobe = tactile sensation.

22. The temporal lobe's major functions are: A) Thinking, fine motor skills, self-regulation B) Hearing, language, memory C) Vision D) Breathing and heartbeat

B) Hearing, language, memory. Why: Temporal = hearing, language, memory (includes hippocampus and amygdala).

23. A person has trouble with impulse control and self-regulation after a brain injury. Which lobe was most likely affected? A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Occipital D) Temporal

A) Frontal. Why: Frontal lobe = thinking, fine motor skills, self-regulation.

24. A patient fluently says, "Please get me some milk from the air conditioner." This is most consistent with: A) Broca's aphasia B) Anterograde amnesia C) Wernicke's aphasia D) Retrograde amnesia

C) Wernicke's aphasia. Why: Wernicke's aphasia: words pronounced correctly but misused; comprehension is impaired.

25. A patient understands everything said to her but can only say "tan tan tan." Which area is most likely damaged? A) Wernicke's area B) Broca's area C) The hippocampus D) The cerebellum

B) Broca's area. Why: Broca's area = production; Broca's aphasia leaves comprehension intact.

26. The hypothalamus regulates all of the following EXCEPT: A) Hunger B) Thirst C) Body temperature D) Language comprehension

D) Language comprehension. Why: Hypothalamus = primal urges; language comprehension is Wernicke's area.

27. Which limbic structure is described as an "emotion center" involved in fear and anxiety? A) Amygdala B) Hippocampus C) Thalamus D) Pons

A) Amygdala. Why: Amygdala: fear, anxiety, reward/punishment learning, mood.

28. Which structure is the origin of dopamine signals in the reward pathway? A) Nucleus accumbens B) Prefrontal cortex C) Ventral tegmental area (VTA) D) Pituitary gland

C) Ventral tegmental area (VTA). Why: VTA = origin of dopamine signals.

29. In Olds & Milner (1954), the electrode was implanted into the rat's: A) Amygdala B) Medial forebrain bundle C) Occipital lobe D) Cerebellum

B) Medial forebrain bundle. Why: Highlighted on the slide: the MFB, the dopamine superhighway.

30. In human self-stimulation studies, which site produced intense euphoria and the HIGHEST self-stimulation (1,500+ presses in 3 hours)? A) Nucleus accumbens B) Septal area C) Lateral hypothalamus D) Medulla

A) Nucleus accumbens. Why: Nucleus accumbens: intense pleasure, high frequency.

31. Which dopamine pathway is associated with pleasure, reward seeking, and addiction? A) Nigrostriatal B) Mesocortical C) Reticular D) Mesolimbic

D) Mesolimbic. Why: Mesolimbic = pleasure and reward seeking, addiction, emotion, perception.