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Increase the unsaturated fatty acids
Which of the following will specifically increase the fluidity of the cell membrane?
A. Decrease in temperature
B. Increase the unsaturated fatty acids
C. Increase the saturated fatty acids
D. Removal of cholesterol
Primary active transport
Transport of solute against its concentration gradient:
A. Primary active transport
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Simple diffusion
D. Osmosis
Has an l-configuration
Which of the following is not true about glycine?
A. Achiral
B. Aliphatic
C. Simplest amino acid
D. Has an l-configuration
I, II, III
Acidic amino acids:
I. Are negatively charged at neutral pH
II. Are ionizable amino acids
III. Include glutamic acid and aspartic acid
IV. Form H bonds
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III
Facilitated diffusion is saturable, meaning, the carriers may be fully occupied.
Which of the following statements differentiates simple passive diffusion from facilitated diffusion?
A. Facilitated diffusion is saturable, meaning, the carriers may be fully occupied.
B. Facilitated diffusion is an active process.
C. Facilitated diffusion moves against concentration gradient. D. Facilitated diffusion is not a carrier-mediated transport process.
Primary
Which of the following protein structure is resistant from denaturation?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
Mitochondrion
The organelle which has its own DNA and the site of energy-yielding oxidation reactions:
A. Nucleus
B. Golgi Apparatus
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
D. Mitochondrion
Glutathione peroxidase
Deficiency of Se is associated with decreased efficiency of:
A. Urease
B. Nitrate reductase
C. Glutathione peroxidase
D. Superoxide dismutase
Transferases
These are enzymes that facilitate group transfer:
A. Oxidoreductases
B. Transferases
C. Hydrolases
D. Ligases
[P]
Which of the following factors can affect the rate of reaction held by enzymes?
A. Temperature
B. pH
C. [P]
D. [S]
AT requires energy; FD does not.
What is the difference between active transport (AT) and facilitated diffusion (FD)?
A. AT requires protein carriers; FD does not.
B. AT requires energy; FD does not.
C. AT requires a concentration gradient; FD does not.
D. AT requires a membrane; FD does not.
Enzyme A has a higher Vmax
A substrate has the same affinity towards enzyme A and B. However, when all other conditions are identical, a higher molar concentration of the product is seen when enzyme A is used. This means that compared to enzyme B:
A. Enzyme A has a higher Km
B. Enzyme A has a lower Km
C. Enzyme A has a higher Vmax
D. Enzyme A has a lower Vmax
A crude measure of the affinity between the enzyme and substrate
What is the significance of Km?
A. A crude measure of the affinity between the enzyme and substrate
B. Tells how fast the enzyme can generate product under saturating substrate conditions
C. Measurement of the relationship between the enzyme concentration and substrate concentration
D. Measurement of the relationship between V0 and pH
X axis
The Lineweaver-Burk plot of noncompetitive inhibition shows lines that intersect on the _____.
A. X axis
B. Y axis
C. Origin
D. No intersection
Cytosol
In what cell component does fatty acid synthesis occur?
A. Lysosome
B. sER
C. Cytosol
D. Mitochondrion
Ceruplasmin
In diagnosing patients with suspected Cu poisoning, which enzyme must be monitored?
A. CK
B. Amylase
C. Ceruplasmin
D. Lipase
Which of the following is not found in the cytoplasm?
A. Cytosol
B. Inclusions
C. Mitochondrion
D. Plasma membrane
Asparagine
Ketogenic amino acids may include all of the following, except: A. Phenylalanine
B. Isoleucine
C. Lysine
D. Asparagine
Basic
Lysine and arginine amino acids are ____.
A. Acidic
B. Neutral
C. Nonpolar
D. Basic
Arginine
This amino acid is considered as a semi-essential amino acid in humans.
A. Lysine
B. Tryptophan
C. Lysine
D. Arginine
Primary
This structure of peptides refers to the order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain/s:
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
Elastin
A fibrous protein that is important component of arterial blood vessels and ligaments.
A. Keratin
B. Collagen
C. Elastin
D. Fibronectin
Quaternary
Protein present in hemoglobin has a structure known as:
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
Val
In sickle cell anemia, Glu is replaced by which amino acid?
A. Val
B. Lys
C. Ile
D. Ala
An amino acid
Which component is not part of a nucleotide?
A. A nitrogen-containing base
B. A monosaccharide
C. An amino acid
D. A phosphate group
Uracil
Which base is found in DNA or RNA, but not both?
A. Uracil
B. Adenine
C. Cytosine
D. Guanine
10
Compute for the isoelectric point of lysine: pK1 = 2.2, pK2 = 9.2, pK3 = 10.8
A. 10
B. 6.5
C. 5.7
D. 10.7
mRNA
Which type of RNA is a template for protein synthesis?
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. dDNA
Glycine
All amino acids found in proteins are in L configuration except:
A. Leucine
B. Thymine
C. Threonine
D. Glycine
It is globular in shape
Which does not correctly describe collagen?
A. It is a structural protein.
B. It is the most abundant fibrous protein
C. It is globular in shape
D. It is found in all tissues and organs
The peptide contains a side chain with a secondary amino group.
Which one of the following statements concerning the peptide shown below is correct? Val-Cys-Glu-Ser-Asp-Arg-Pro
A. The peptide contains asparagine.
B. The peptide contains a side chain with a secondary amino group.
C. The peptide contains a thioether side chain.
D. The peptide cannot form an internal disulfide bond.
Monosaccharide + Base
What is a nucleoside?
A. Monosaccharide + Base
B. A polymer of nucleotides
C. monosaccharides ribose and deoxyribose
D. monosaccharide + a base + phosphate
TAU
Which sequence is not possible?
A. GAGA
B. TAU
C. TATA
D. TGA
control muscle contractions
What is the function of myosin in the human body?
A. as connective tissue found in tendons, bone, cartilage, and blood vessels
B. control muscle contractions
C. stores iron in the liver
D. stores O2 in tissues
Glycosidic bond
Which of the following bonds provides attachment of the sugar to the N-base?
A. H Bond
B. PD Bond
C. Glycosidic bond
D. Peptide bond
Disulfide bond
What is the strongest type of interaction between two cysteine amino acids in a protein?
A. Hydrogen bonding
B. London dispersion forces
C. Disulfide bond
D. Electrostatic interactions
Denaturation
What is the process of altering the shape of a protein without breaking the amide bonds that form the primary structure?
A. Hydrolysis
B. Competitive inhibition
C. Denaturation
D. Oxidation
3
How many chirality centers are in leu-enkephalin (structure shown)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
The primary structure of a protein
What is the particular sequence of amino acids of a protein that are joined together by peptide bonds called?
A. The primary structure of a protein
B. The tertiary structure of a protein
C. The secondary structure of a protein
D. The quaternary structure of a protein
Only statement 1 is correct.
Evaluate the two statements:
I. Amino acid [Q] has a nonionic polar side chain.
II. It is also classified as an aliphatic amino acid with hydroxyl group.
A. Only statement 1 is correct.
B. Only statement 2 is correct.
C. Both statements are correct.
D. Both statements are incorrect.
Tryptophan
This amino acid contains the indole functional group.
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Tryptophan
D. Proline
Secondary
Helical formation of helix is a characteristic of what protein structure?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
Peptide bonds
The main mode of linkage in primary protein structure is:
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Peptide bonds
C. Salt bridges formation
D. Covalent bonds
DNA
Hydrogen atom at 2' of the ribose ring indicates that the nucleic acid is:
A. RNA
B. DNA
C. ATP
D. ADP
Cytosine and Guanine
Which of the following base pairs is bound by a triple bond?
A. Adenine and Thymine
B. Guanine and Thymine
C. Adenine and Cytosine
D. Cytosine and Guanine
Tertiary
The chromatin structure is an example of _____ structure.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
Residue
Each amino acid in the chain is called:
A. Carboxyl
B. Amino
C. Residue
D. Peptide
Overlapping
This is not a feature of a genetic code:
A. Degenerate
B. Unambiguous
C. Overlapping
D. Universal
Prion
These cause neurodegenerative diseases to cause improper folding of proteins:
A. Chaperones
B. Protein denaturation
C. Domain
D. Prion
Has freedom of rotation
Which among the following is not a characteristic of a peptide bond?
A. Has freedom of rotation
B. Side chains are free to rotate on either side
C. Partially double bond
D. Rigid and planar
DNA Polymerase I
5'-3' exonuclease activity is exhibited by what type of DNA polymerase?
A. DNA Polymerase I
B. DNA Polymerase II
C. DNA Polymerase III
D. DNA Polymerase IV
Helicase
Unzipping of dsDNA is catalyzed by:
A. Polymerase
B. Helicase
C. Topoisomerase
D. Ligase
a point mutation
Which type of mutation is expressed when a DNA sequence changes from GGA TCA CCG GAA.... to GGA TCC CGG....?
A. a deletion mutation
B. an insertion mutation
C. a point mutation
D. All of the above
Transversion
A purine that substitutes for a pyrimidine and vice versa is what type of point mutation?
A. Transition
B. Transversion
C. Translocation
D. Transmission
GCUAACUG
Which of the following is the complementary RNA strand of the sequence CGATTGAC?
A. CAGTTAGC
B. GCUAACUG
C. TCUAACTG
D. GCTAACTG
Replication fork
The point where unwinding occurs in DNA is:
A. Replication fork
B. Replication bubble
C. Leading strand
D. Lagging strand
Proteostatis
This is defined as the continual maintenance of active set of cellular proteins required under a given set of conditions:
A. Amyloidoses
B. Homeostasis
C. Proteostasis
D. Collagenopathies
TRUE; TRUE
Nascent proteins are non-functional. Native proteins are functional.
A. TRUE; FALSE
B. FALSE; TRUE
C. TRUE; TRUE
D. FALSE; FALSE
Hsp60
These are also known as cage-like chaperones in eukaryotes: A. GroEL
B. Hsp70
C. PDI
D. Hsp60
Addition of 7-methylguanosine cap at the 3' end
In post-transcriptional modifications of mRNA, the following are observed, except:
A. Addition of 7-methylguanosine cap at the 3' end
B. Addition of Poly(A) tail
C. RNA Splicing
D. None of the above
All of the choices
Agents that promote protein denaturation:
A. Heat
B. UV Radiation
C. Strong Acids
D. All of the choices
Alzheimer's Disease
Increased levels of b-amyloid is critical in aggravating:
A. Huntington's Disease
B. Alzheimer's Disease
C. b-Thalassemia
D. Parkinson's Disease
metabolism
Which is the sum of all of the chemical reactions that take place in an organism?
A. anabolism
B. catabolism
C. metabolism
D. citric acid cycle
Tertiary
Complete 3D conformation:
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
phosphorylation
The addition of a phosphate group to ADP, forming ATP is an example of what type of reaction?
A. hydration
B. hydrolysis
C. phosphorylation
D. reduction
E. decarboxylation
I, III
Which of the following correctly describe/s collagen?
I. Triple helix
II. In every 3rd amino acid residue, proline is observed
III. Gly-X-Y sequence
A. I, II, III
B. I, II
C. I, III
D. II, IV
Kinks
What is the essence of having P in the structure of collagen?
A. Flexibility
B. Integrity
C. Kinks
D. Rigidity
I, II, III
Which of the following cofactor/s is/are needed in the hydroxylation of proline and lysine?
I. Iron
II. Oxygen
III. Vitamin C
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. I, II
D. II, III E. III only
1
How many reactions in the citric acid cycle generate FADH2? A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Elastin
This protein is found in lungs with rubber-like properties:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Keratin
D. Elastin
Myoglobin
A storage protein of oxygen:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Keratin
D. Elastin
Carboxyhemoglobin
CO poisoning is caused by increased levels of:
A. Methemoglobin
B. Carboxyhemoglobin
C. Myoglobin
D. Hemoglobin
glucose to pyruvate.
Glycolysis converts _____
A. polysaccharides to glucose.
B. glucose to pyruvate.
C. fatty acids to thioesters
D. amino acids to urea.
glucose
Which is not one of the three major products that are formed in glycolysis?
A. glucose
B. ATP
C. NADH
D. pyruvate
It has a hyperbolic shape in its oxygen dissociation curve
True statements concerning hemoglobin, except:
A. It has a hyperbolic shape in its oxygen dissociation curve
B. It has 4 polypeptide subunits
C. It is a quaternary structure type of protein
D. All are correct
pyruvate to acetyl CoA
Which process requires the coenzyme NADH?
A. glucose to pyruvate
B. pyruvate to acetaldehyde
C. pyruvate to lactate
D. pyruvate to acetyl CoA
low carbohydrate diet
Which factors increase the rate of gluconeogenesis?
A. high glycogen reserves
B. low carbohydrate diet
C. high carbohydrate diet
D. low oxygen concentration
in the inner membrane of mitochondria
Where does the electron transport chain process take place? A. in the inner membrane of mitochondria
B. in the outer membrane of mitochondria
C. in the intermembrane space of mitochondria
D. in the matrix of mitochondria
are catabolized to pyruvate or an intermediate in the citric acid cycle.
Glucogenic amino acids _____
A. are converted to acetyl CoA.
B. are converted to the thioester acetoacetyl CoA.
C. are catabolized to pyruvate or an intermediate in the citric acid cycle.
D. can be converted to ketone bodies
Inner mitochondrial membrane
The electron transport chain (ETC) is the final common pathway by which electrons derived from the different fuels of the body flow to oxygen. Where does ETC occurs?
A. Outer mitochondrial membrane
B. Cytosol
C. Golgi complex
D. Inner mitochondrial membrane
Conversion of amino acids to keto acids
Which of the following is called transamination?
A. Conversion of amino acids to hydroxyl acids
B. Conversion of amino acids to keto acids
C. Loss of ammonia from amino acids
D. Formation of ammonium salts from ammonia
Catabolic
The energy producing reaction:
A. Metabolic
B. Catabolic
C. Anabolic
D. Amphibolic
The regulated reactions are also the irreversible reactions.
Which one of the following statements concerning glycolysis is correct?
A. The conversion of glucose to lactose requires the presence of oxygen.
B. Hexokinase is important in hepatic glucose metabolism only in the absorptive period following consumption of a carbohydrate-containing meal.
C. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate is a potent inhibitor of phosphofructokinase.
D. The regulated reactions are also the irreversible reactions.
Acetyl CoA
. It is the building block of essential fatty acids.
A. Malonyl CoA
B. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
C. Acetyl CoA
D. HMG CoA
B cell.
Insulin promotes the storage of fat and glucose in specialized target cells. What pancreatic cell type is responsible for secreting this hormone?
A. A cell.
B. B cell.
C. D cell.
D. F cell
Asparagine
Ketogenic amino acids may include all of the following, except: A. Phenylalanine
B. Isoleucine
C. Lysine
D. Asparagine
III, IV
Which of the following biochemical pathways occur in the cytoplasm?
I. Decarboxylation of Pyruvate
II. Krebs Cycle
III. HMP Pathway
IV. Fatty Acid Synthesis
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. I, III
D. III, IV
glycolysis
The process where 6-carbon glucose molecule is split into two molecules of pyruvic acid.
A. glycolysis
B. citric acid cycle
C. calvin cycle
D. TCA
ATP
A molecule that carries energy within cells.
A. NADH
B. ATP
C. NADPH
D. glucose
oxygen
Which of following is not a product of citric acid cycle?
A. carbon dioxide
B. NADH
C. FADH2
D. oxygen
Fermentation
If oxygen is not present, this step will happen after glycolysis. A. citric acid cycle
B. ETC
C. Fermentation
D. Glycogenesis
Carbon dioxide and water
What are the products of aerobic respiration?
A. Acetyl CoA and oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide and water
C. Lactic acid
D. Ethanol
glucose and oxygen
What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration? A. oxygen and lactic acid
B. carbon dioxide and water
C. glucose and oxygen
D. water and glucose
mitochondria
Where does the Krebs Cycle take place?
A. mitochondria
B. chloroplast
C. cytoplasm
D. nucleus
Glycolysis > Krebs cycle > ETC
Which is the correct order of the steps of cellular respiration? A. Glycolysis > Krebs cycle > ETC
B. Glycolysis > ETC > Krebs cycle
C. Krebs cycle > ETC > Glycolysis
D. ETC > Glycolysis > Krebs cycle