Microbiology: Microbial Diversity, Genetics, Growth & Lab Tests

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131 Terms

1
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What is a key structural feature of eukaryotic cells?

They have a nucleus.

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What type of chromosomes do eukaryotic cells possess?

Linear chromosomes.

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Name three membranous organelles found in eukaryotic cells.

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER), Golgi apparatus, and vacuoles.

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What organelles are involved in energy production in eukaryotic cells?

Mitochondria and chloroplasts.

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What are single-celled fungi called?

Yeasts.

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What is the structure formed by fungal hyphae?

Mycelium.

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What is the primary component of fungal cell walls?

Chitin.

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What are the two major groups of amebas?

Lobed amebas and filamentous amebas.

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What disease is caused by Naegleria fowleri?

Primary amebic meningoencephalitis.

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What is the function of cilia in ciliates?

Ciliates use cilia for movement and feeding.

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What is the apical complex in apicomplexans?

A specialized structure that facilitates entry of the parasite into a host cell.

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What is the vector for malaria?

Mosquitoes (specifically, Anopheles mosquitoes).

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What are helminths?

Parasitic worms.

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What are the three main types of helminths?

Nematodes (roundworms), trematodes (flukes), and cestodes (tapeworms).

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What is a characteristic of nematodes?

They have a cylindrical shape and a digestive tube that ends in an anus.

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What is a common example of a cestode?

Tapeworms.

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What are arthropods known for?

Having an exoskeleton and jointed appendages.

18
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What is a common disease transmitted by ticks?

Lyme disease.

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What is a virus?

A noncellular particle with a genome contained by a capsid.

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What are bacteriophages?

Viruses that infect bacteria.

<p>Viruses that infect bacteria.</p>
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What is a virion?

Progeny viruses.

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What is the Baltimore model?

A classification system for viruses based on their genome type.

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What type of viruses does Group I of the Baltimore classification include?

Double-stranded DNA viruses.

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What disease is caused by the herpesvirus?

Chickenpox and genital infections.

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What type of viruses does Group IV of the Baltimore classification include?

Sense single-stranded RNA viruses.

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What disease is caused by orthomyxoviruses?

Influenza.

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What is a characteristic of viral genomes?

They can be RNA or DNA, and single-stranded or double-stranded.

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What is the significance of the capsid in viruses?

It keeps the viral genome intact outside the host cell.

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What type of viruses are retroviruses?

RNA reverse transcribing viruses

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What diseases do lentiviruses like HIV cause?

AIDS and simian AIDS

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What are pararetroviruses?

DNA reverse-transcribing viruses

32
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What is the role of caulimoviruses in biotechnology?

They provide vector tools for plant biotechnology.

33
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What type of virus is Hepatitis B?

A hepadnavirus that infects the human liver.

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What is the structure of an icosahedral capsid?

It has radial symmetry based on an icosahedron with 20 identical triangular faces.

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Give an example of a virus with a filamentous structure.

Tobacco mosaic virus or Ebola virus.

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What is a viral envelope?

An optional structure derived from the host's membrane that may contain spike proteins.

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What are complex-tailed bacteriophages?

Viruses with an icosahedral head and a tail that injects genetic material into host cells.

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What are viroids?

Virus-like infectious agents where the genome is the entire infectious particle, targeting plants.

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What are prions?

Infectious proteins that cause forced misfolding of normal proteins.

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What is antigenic drift?

Rapid mutation leading to new strains of viruses that may evade host antibodies.

41
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What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic infections?

Lytic infections result in the rupture of host cells, while lysogenic infections integrate into the host genome.

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What is the significance of the HPV link to cervical cancer?

Harald zur Hausen discovered the link, earning him the 2008 Nobel Prize in Physiology.

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What is the structure of SARS-CoV-2?

It contains RNA packaged in proteins with a surrounding envelope and spike proteins.

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What is the role of hemagglutinin in the influenza virus?

It helps the virus attach to host cells.

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What is the function of reverse transcriptase in HIV?

It synthesizes DNA from the RNA template.

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What is CAR-T therapy?

A treatment that modifies T cells to target certain forms of leukemia.

47
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What is the purpose of bacterial culture media?

To grow bacteria either in liquid or solid form for laboratory studies.

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What is isolation streaking?

A technique used to separate bacterial colonies into pure culture.

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What does a minimal medium contain?

Only the nutrients necessary for the organism to grow.

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What is the significance of the spread plate technique?

It allows for the isolation of pure colonies from a mixed culture.

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What is the primary target of HIV?

Helper T cells, which are immune cells.

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What is the prognosis for untreated AIDS?

Death due to opportunistic infections.

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What is the mode of transmission for prions?

Consumption of prion-infected material, typically meat.

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What are oncogenes?

Genes that can cause cancer when inserted by viruses.

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What is the role of neuraminidase in influenza virus replication?

It assists in the budding process of new virions.

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What is a minimal medium?

A synthetic medium with only the nutrients an organism needs to grow.

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What is a rich medium?

A nutrient-rich but less defined complex medium used for bacterial growth.

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What is selective media?

Media that prevent the growth of some bacteria while favoring the growth of specific types.

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What is differential media?

Media where species grow equally well but can be distinguished by color indicators.

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What is MacConkey medium used for?

To selectively grow Gram-negative enteric bacteria and differentiate lactose fermenters.

<p>To selectively grow Gram-negative enteric bacteria and differentiate lactose fermenters.</p>
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What methods count only live bacterial cells?

Plated (growth) methods.

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What are direct cell counts?

Methods that determine the total number of cells, dead or alive.

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What is binary fission?

The process by which most bacteria reproduce, dividing one parent cell into two daughter cells.

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What is exponential growth in bacteria?

Growth where the population size doubles at a fixed rate, such as every 20 minutes.

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What are essential nutrients for microbes?

Compounds that a microbe cannot synthesize and must obtain from the environment.

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What are some examples of essential nutrients?

Carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, magnesium, iron, potassium, and trace elements.

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What are growth factors?

Compounds that must be added to culture media for certain microbes to grow.

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What is the role of carbon compounds in microbial life?

They serve as food, storing energy and providing building materials for biomass.

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What are autotrophs?

Organisms that make their own carbon compounds from CO2.

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What are chemotrophs?

Organisms that use oxidation-reduction reactions to obtain energy.

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What is nitrogen fixation?

The process by which some bacteria convert N2 gas to ammonium ions (NH4+).

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What are extremophiles?

Microbes that can grow in extreme environments, such as high temperatures or pressures.

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What are psychrophiles?

Bacteria that grow at temperatures of 20°C or lower.

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What are mesophiles?

Bacteria that grow best at temperatures between 15°C and 45°C.

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What are thermophiles?

Bacteria that thrive at temperatures typically between 55°C and 70°C.

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What are barophiles?

Microorganisms that have adapted to grow at high pressures, such as those found deep in the ocean.

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What is water activity (aw)?

A measure of the availability of water for microbial growth.

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What are halophiles?

Microbes that require high concentrations of salt (NaCl) for growth.

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What pH range do neutralophiles prefer?

A pH range between 5 and 8.

80
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What are strict aerobes?

Organisms that require oxygen for energy metabolism and can detoxify reactive oxygen species (ROS).

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What are strict anaerobes?

Organisms that do not require oxygen for energy metabolism and find oxygen toxic.

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What is a biofilm?

A mass of bacteria that stick to and multiply on a solid surface, often resistant to destruction.

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What are endospores?

Dormant, destruction-resistant forms produced by certain Gram-positive bacteria.

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Which bacteria are known for producing endospores?

Bacillus (e.g., B. anthracis) and Clostridium (e.g., C. botulinum, C. tetani).

85
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What is the total sequence of a given organism called?

Genome

86
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What determines all inherited traits of an organism?

The genome

87
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What are the four DNA bases?

A, T, C, G

88
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What is a plasmid?

A small circular piece of extrachromosomal DNA

89
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What is the significance of plasmids in bacteria?

They encode helpful genes such as antibiotic resistance.

90
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Describe the process of DNA replication.

It is bidirectional and semiconservative.

91
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What are the three stages of DNA replication?

Initiation, Elongation, Termination.

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What occurs during the initiation stage of DNA replication?

Unwinding of the helix, priming, and loading DNA polymerase.

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What happens during the elongation stage of DNA replication?

Sequential extension of DNA by adding nucleotides and proofreading.

94
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What is the role of DNA gyrase in DNA replication?

It supercoils DNA after replication.

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What is transcription?

The synthesis of an RNA copy of a gene.

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What is the final product of most genes in bacteria?

Messenger RNA (mRNA).

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What do codons in mRNA specify?

Amino acids.

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How many codons are in the genetic code?

64 codons.

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What is the start codon for translation?

AUG, which specifies methionine.

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What are the stop codons in mRNA?

UGA, UAA, UAG.