KoreVia Solutions: Comprehensive Core Competency Allied Health

Who is NOT allowed to be a health care agent (durable POA for health care)?

The physician, nurse, or other provider caring for the patient. The agent should know the patient's wishes and values.

What is a POLST?

A medical order (not a legal document) completed with a clinician for people with serious illness or frailty. EMS must follow it.

What type of issue is ALWAYS a grievance and is escalated immediately?

An allegation of abuse or neglect (also patient harm or rights violations). Complaints fixed on the spot are not grievances.

What mainly separates healthcare fraud from waste or abuse?

Intent and knowledge that the action was wrong. Fraud requires both.

When can suspected DOMESTIC abuse of an adult be reported?

Only with the victim's consent. Child and elder abuse are mandatory reports to CPS/APS.

Confidentiality under HIPAA is an example of which ethical principle?

Fidelity (keeping promises and commitments).

What three safeguards does the HIPAA Security Rule use to protect electronic PHI?

Technical (passwords, encryption), physical (restricted computer access), and administrative (security officer, risk analysis).

In the LEARN model, what does A stand for?

Acknowledge and discuss differences and similarities. LEARN = Listen, Explain, Acknowledge, Recommend, Negotiate.

What does RACE stand for in fire safety?

Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish.

Which extinguisher is preferred for expensive electronics because it leaves no residue?

Carbon dioxide (CO2). Used on Class B and C fires.

How far should oxygen equipment be kept from fire sources?

At least 6 feet (candles, stoves, electric blankets, hairdryers). No smoking and no petroleum products.

Which hand hygiene method is required after caring for a C. diff patient?

Soap and water only. Alcohol rub alone is prohibited because it doesn't remove spores.

What protection is needed for suspected active TB?

N95 respirator (or PAPR) for staff, and a negative-pressure airborne isolation room for the patient. Fit-tested annually.

What is the MOST common reaction to latex gloves?

Irritant contact dermatitis (non-allergic dry, red, itchy skin where latex touches).

What is the maximum restraint order length for a child under 9?

1 hour. Adults 18+ = 4 hours; ages 9-17 = 2 hours. No standing or PRN restraint orders.

What is the FIRST thing to do after a patient falls?

Perform a head-to-toe assessment for injuries, then check vitals, ROM, cognition, and consciousness, notify the physician, document, and file an incident report.

How many core mental functions must be significantly impaired for dementia?

At least two (memory, language, attention, reasoning/judgment, visual perception).

How should you respond to a dementia patient who keeps insisting on getting her purse?

Validate her feelings and agree to make sure she has it when it's time to leave. Don't argue or correct.

Which sense is thought to be one of the last to go in a dying patient?

Hearing. Always act as though the patient can hear you.

In long-term care, when must a baseline care plan be developed?

Within 24 hours of admission. MDS within 14 days; comprehensive care plan within 7 days after the assessment.

What is the 'on time' window for giving a medication?

Within 1 hour before or after the ordered time, per agency policy.

Which pain tool is designed for young children and non-verbal patients?

FLACC (Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability).

What is a 'near miss'?

A patient safety event that never reaches the patient. A no-harm event reaches the patient without injury.

What is the correct action for a patient in an acute suicidal crisis?

Keep the patient in a safe environment under one-to-one observation. A safety plan is not a 'no-suicide contract'.

HIV PEP should be started within how long after exposure?

Within 72 hours. PEP works best when started within 72 hours of exposure.

Percutaneous (needlestick) transmission risk of hepatitis C?

About 1.8%. HBV is 6-30%, HIV about 0.3%. There is no vaccine or PEP for HCV.

How many sections are in a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

16 sections (SDS was formerly called MSDS).

How many programs make up the Joint Commission Environment of Care plan?

8: Safety, Emergency, Medical Equipment, Hazardous Materials & Waste, Utilities, Life Safety, Security, Social Environment.

How many items are on the HCAHPS survey?

27 items. Surveyed 48 hours to 6 weeks after discharge. Hospitals that don't report lose up to 2% of Medicare payment.

A Class K fire involves:

Cooking oils and fats. A = ordinary combustibles, B = flammable liquids/gases, C = energized electrical, D = combustible metals.

Minimum soap-and-water hand washing time?

20 seconds. Alcohol rub is fine only if hands aren't visibly soiled, and never alone for C. diff.

What should replace 'U' under the Do Not Use abbreviation list?

Write out 'units'. Also on the list: IU, QD, QOD, trailing zero, missing leading zero, MS, MSO4, MgSO4, @, cc, ug.

Name the 8 Rights of Medication Administration.

Right individual, medication, time, dose, route, documentation, reason, response.

What does the QI model FADE stand for?

Focus, Analyze, Develop, Execute/Evaluate. (PDSA = Plan, Do, Study, Act.)

Which quality tool is PROACTIVE, finding how a process could fail before it does?

FMEA (Failure Mode Effects Analysis). RCA is done after an event.

The Wong-Baker FACES scale is used for:

Children and mentally impaired or confused adults. Numeric scales are for adults of sound mind; FLACC is for young or non-verbal patients.

Which medication reverses an opioid overdose?

Naloxone. Keep it on hand for patients with substance use disorder.

A transfer (gait) belt should NOT be used for a patient with:

Pregnancy, recent abdominal surgery, abdominal pain, an ostomy, or anyone who can't tolerate the pressure. Belts assist and never lift.

Which care is provided near the end of life and is NOT curative?

Hospice. Palliative care is for any serious illness at any stage and can be given alongside treatment.

The Stark Law prohibits:

Physician referrals for designated health services billed to Medicare/Medicaid when the physician (or immediate family) has a financial relationship with the provider.