Lab Exercise 4: Skeletal System I Review Flashcards

A set of 112 practice Q&A flashcards covering all skeletal anatomy, bone markings, structures, functions, and diagram references from Lab Exercise 4.

Into which two major regions are the bones of the skeletal system classified?

The axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton.

What components form the central supporting axis of the body in the axial skeleton?

The skull, auditory ossicles, hyoid bone, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum.

What bone groups make up the appendicular skeleton?

The pectoral girdle, upper limbs, pelvic girdle, and lower limbs.

How many total adult bones are categorized between the axial and appendicular skeletons?

$206$ adult bones.

What labeling requirement must be included when identifying duplicated bones or bone markings?

Right or left designations must be included.

Which figure illustrates the anterior and posterior views comparing the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton?

Textbook Figure 8.1, showing the anterior and posterior views of the human skeleton with axial and appendicular classifications.

What type of joints are sutures between bones of the skull?

Fibrous joints that later form synostoses.

Which suture connects the frontal bone and parietal bones?

The coronal suture.

Which suture connects the two parietal bones along the midline?

The sagittal suture.

Which suture is located between the occipital bone and the parietal bones?

The lambdoid suture.

Which suture connects the temporal bone and parietal bone?

The squamous suture.

How many frontal bones are present in the adult skull?

$1$ frontal bone.

What bone marking forms the upper edge of the orbit on the frontal bone?

The supraorbital margin.

What is the function of the supraorbital foramen (or notch)?

It serves as a passageway for nerves and blood vessels that supply the skin and muscles of the forehead, temples, and skin surrounding the eyes.

How many parietal bones form part of the cranium?

$2$ parietal bones.

How many occipital bones are in the skull?

$1$ occipital bone.

What structure on the occipital bone articulates with Atlas ($C_1$) to form the atlanto-occipital joint?

The occipital condyles.

What opening in the occipital bone allows the spinal cord to exit the cranium?

The foramen magnum.

What prominent midpoint feature is located on the posterior surface of the occipital bone?

The external occipital protuberance.

Which nerve passes through the hypoglossal canals of the occipital bone?

The hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII).

How many temporal bones are present in the skull?

$2$ temporal bones.

What is the function of the external acoustic meatuses in the temporal bones?

To channel sound waves into the internal ear.

What is the primary function of the mastoid process on the temporal bone?

It serves as a site of muscle attachment.

What structure of the temporal bone serves as the site of mandibular articulation?

The mandibular fossa.

Where is the petrous part of the temporal bone located?

It is a hollow protrusion located inside the cranial cavity.

Where is the mandibular foramen located and what passes through it?

It is located on the internal surface near the angle of the mandible; it acts as a passageway for blood vessels and nerves serving the lower jaw and teeth.

Which cranial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone?

The vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII).

What vessel passes through the carotid canals of the temporal bone?

The internal carotid artery, supplying blood to the brain.

What major blood vessel passes through the jugular foramen?

The internal jugular vein, draining blood from the brain.

What arch is formed when the zygomatic process of the temporal bone articulates with the temporal process of the zygomatic bone?

The zygomatic arch.

How many sphenoid bones are present in the skull?

$1$ sphenoid bone.

What is the function of the pterygoid plates on the sphenoid bone?

They serve as attachment sites for muscles that move the jaw.

What endocrine structure sits within the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone?

The pituitary gland.

Which nerve passes through the optic canal of the sphenoid bone?

The optic nerve (cranial nerve II).

How many ethmoid bones exist in the skull?

$1$ ethmoid bone.

What passes through the olfactory foramina of the cribriform plate?

Units of the olfactory nerve (cranial nerve I) passing from upper nasal cavity to the brain.

What triangular structure projects upward from the cribriform plate for meninges attachment?

The crista galli.

What is the function of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone?

It partitions the nasal cavity and forms the upper part of the nasal septum.

How many maxillae are in the facial skeleton?

$2$ maxillae.

What bone marking on the maxilla and mandible houses the teeth?

The alveolar processes.

How many mandible bones are present in the skull?

$1$ mandible bone.

What part of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone?

The head (located on the condylar process).

Where is the mental foramen located, and what is its purpose?

It is located on the anterior surface of the body of the mandible and serves as a passageway for blood vessels and nerves serving the chin.

How many zygomatic bones are present in the facial skeleton?

$2$ zygomatic bones.

How many lacrimal bones are in the skull?

$2$ lacrimal bones.

How many nasal bones form the bridge of the nose?

$2$ nasal bones.

What bone forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum?

The vomer ($1$).

What structure is formed by the palatine bones?

The posterior portion of the hard palate (or floor of the nasal cavity).

What structures join together to form the vertebral arch of a vertebra?

The pedicles and the laminae.

How is the vertebral foramen formed, and what collective channel does it form?

It is formed by the articulation of the body with the vertebral arch; collectively, the foramina form the vertebral canal.

What is the general function of the spinous process on a vertebra?

It serves as an attachment site for muscles and ligaments of the spine.

What opening is formed by two adjacent intervertebral notches?

The intervertebral foramen, which acts as a passageway for spinal nerves.

How many cervical vertebrae are found in the human vertebral column?

$7$ cervical vertebrae.

What is the characteristic shape of the vertebral body in a cervical vertebra?

Kidney-bean-shaped.

Which specific bone feature is found exclusively in the transverse processes of cervical vertebrae?

Transverse foramina.

Which cervical vertebrae typically possess bifid spinous processes?

$C_2$ through $C_6$.

Which figure displays the superior view of Atlas ($C_1$) and posterosuperior views of Axis ($C_2$)?

Textbook Figure 8.18, illustrating Atlas ($C_1$), Axis ($C_2$), and their articulation with the dens and transverse ligament.

Which table summary details the small size, kidney-bean body shape, and transverse foramina of cervical vertebrae?

Textbook Table 8.5 (Characteristics of Cervical Vertebrae).

What major landmark feature is absent from the Atlas ($C_1$) vertebra?

The vertebral body.

What prominent process projects superiorly from the Axis ($C_2$) vertebra?

The dens (odontoid process).

How many thoracic vertebrae are present in the vertebral column?

$12$ thoracic vertebrae.

What is the characteristic body shape of a thoracic vertebra?

Heart-shaped.

Where are costal facets located on thoracic vertebrae, and what do they articulate with?

They are located on the body (superior/inferior costal facets, articulating with the head of ribs) and transverse processes (transverse costal facets, articulating with rib tubercles).

How do the spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae typically appear?

They are relatively long, pointed, and angle downward (inferiorly).

How many lumbar vertebrae are in the lower back?

$5$ lumbar vertebrae.

Describe the relative size and body shape of a lumbar vertebra.

It has the largest relative size with a large, oval or round body.

Describe the appearance of the spinous process on a lumbar vertebra.

It is short, thick, blunt, and projects posteriorly.

Do thoracic or lumbar vertebrae possess transverse foramina?

No, transverse foramina are present only in cervical vertebrae.

How many individual fused sacral vertebrae form the sacrum?

$5$ fused sacral vertebrae ($S_1-S_5$).

What smooth articular region on the sacrum articulates with the ilium of the hip bone?

The auricular surface.

What ridge formed along the posterior midline of the sacrum represents fused spinous processes?

The median sacral crest.

Which figure provides posterior and lateral views of vertebral anatomy detailing pedicles, laminae, and intervertebral discs?

Textbook Figure 8.17 (Vertebral Anatomy).

How many fused coccygeal vertebrae form the coccyx?

$4$ fused coccygeal vertebrae ($Co_1-Co_4$).

What structure forms the protective enclosure for organs in the thoracic cavity?

The thoracic cage (composed of the sternum and ribs).

What are the three major components of the sternum?

The manubrium, body (gladiolus), and xiphoid process.

What tissue forms the xiphoid process in young children?

Hyaline cartilage.

What central notch is located on the superior border of the manubrium?

The suprasternal notch.

How many total pairs of ribs make up the thoracic cage?

$12$ pairs of ribs.

Which ribs are classified as true or vertebrosternal ribs?

Ribs $1$ through $7$.

Which ribs are classified as false or vertebrochondral ribs?

Ribs $8$ through $10$.

Which ribs are classified as floating or vertebral ribs?

Ribs $11$ and $12$.

Which two bones articulate to form each pectoral girdle?

The clavicle and the scapula.

What are the two named ends of the clavicle?

The sternal end and the acromial end.

What bump process on the inferior posterior surface of the clavicle serves as an anatomical landmark?

The conoid tubercle.

What shallow cavity on the lateral angle of the scapula articulates with the humerus?

The glenoid cavity.

Which figure illustrates the superior and inferior views of the right clavicle?

Textbook Figure 8.23 (Clavicle).

Which figure illustrates the anterior and posterior views of the right scapula?

Textbook Figure 8.24 (Scapula).

What are the three major fossae found on the scapula?

The subscapular fossa, supraspinous fossa, and infraspinous fossa.

What prominent anterior process on the scapula projects anteriorly and laterally below the acromion?

The coracoid process.

Where is the deltoid tuberosity located on the humerus?

On the lateral aspect of the shaft of the humerus.

What smooth round condyle on the distal humerus articulates with the radius?

The capitulum.

What pulley-like condyle on the distal humerus articulates with the ulna?

The trochlea.

What posterior depression on the distal humerus receives the olecranon during elbow extension?

The olecranon fossa.

What prominent process on the proximal ulna forms the point of the elbow?

The olecranon.

What deep notch on the ulna articulates with the trochlea of the humerus?

The trochlear notch.

Which reference table details the mnemonic 'So Long To Pinky Here Comes The Thumb' for carpal bones?

The Carpal Mnemonic Reference table (listing Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Hamate, Capitate, Trapezoid, Trapezium).

Name the four carpal bones contained in the proximal row, from lateral to medial.

Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, and Pisiform.

Name the four carpal bones contained in the distal row, from medial to lateral (in mnemonic order).

Hamate, Capitate, Trapezoid, and Trapezium.

How should metacarpals be identified on a practical exam?

By side, bone name, and Roman numeral/digit number (e.g., 'Right Metacarpal I' or 'Right Metacarpal of Digit 1').

How many phalanges are found in digit 1 (pollex) compared to digits 2 through 5?

Digit 1 has $2$ phalanges (proximal and distal), while digits 2–5 each have $3$ phalanges (proximal, middle, and distal).