Falshis 300

The VHF communication range is roughly?:

Up to ~ 200Nm.

How many degrees of tail clearance has the A306 with full extended struts?

max. 12.7°

What does the emergency lighting include?

It includes emergency ceiling lights, exit marking signs and escape slide lighting. The battery capacity provides 12 minutes of light illumination.

When do the exit signs and cabin ceiling lights automatically illuminate?

Dependant on aircraft status (TR), both statements are correct.

When is the residual pressure door warning activated?

When residual pressure is present and landing gear compressed, spoiler disarmed, N2 less than 1,5 % and at least two IRS less than 2 kt ground speed.

Which dimension has the wheel track and base of the A306?

6.67m and 18.6m.

FWC 1 has failed completely. Which statement is correct?

Some AMBER cautions are lost, some AMBER alerts are available without restriction. All RED warnings are impaired.

If SGU 1 & SGU 2 fail, what will happen?

SGU 3 replaces the two SGUs at the same time.

On the PFD : beyond 25° pitch up or beyond 13° pitch down – what happens?

a CHECK ATT message is displayed on the PFD

On the PFD, one dot of the altitude deviation scale represents:

500 ft.

How many oxygen cylinders are normally installed for the crew oxygen system in the A300-600 at EAT?

Generally there are 6 cylinders installed, 3 for CM1 and 3 for CM2

What is the meaning of a red SPD LIM message on the PFD?

ADC or IRS 1 or 2 failure.

When the PFD or the ND has failed, which transfer can be carried out?

Transfer from the PFD to the ND only.

All ACARS messages are:

Linked to ATC call sign.

Regarding the SELCAL code:

Every aircraft operator has it's own unique code.

The VHF communication range is roughly?:

Up to ~ 10Nm.

VHF 3 Mode can:

Be used all the time.

Voice transmission on HF is:

Always possible.

Which frequency band is used for HF voice communication?:

30.000-107.999MHz.

Which frequency band is used for VHF voice communication?:

30.000-107.990MHz.

After a starting sequence one or both ARM light illuminate on the START pushbutton(s) if:

The IGNITION selector is on CONT RELIGHT position and the relevant N2 is lower than 45%. This indicates the starting sequence of the relevant engine was not successful. (Only respective ARM light illuminates)

What is the source of emergency oxygen for the courier oxygen system in the A300-600 at EAT and what type of mask is used in the courier area?

The emergency oxygen is supplied from the high-pressure oxygen cylinders of the crew oxygen system and a quick donning mask type (oro-nasal or full face) is provided.

What type of emergency oxygen system is provided in the lavatory of A300-600 at EAT?

There is a full face mask connected to the high-pressure oxygen cylinders of the crew oxygen system provided in the lavatory.

AC BUS 1 can be supplied from:

ENG GEN 1, APU GEN or EXT PWR.

AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by:

GEN 2 via OVRD supply 2.

All BAT pushbuttons are set to OFF/R. On the BAT pushbutton, the OFF/R light illuminates, what happens if the BAT OVRD pushbutton is pressed in?

Nothing.

All three generators are running, external power is OFF, GEN 1 fails, AC BUS 1 will be supplied by:

The APU GEN.

APU and engine generators are driven at constant speed through :

Integrated constant speed drive for ENG 1 and ENG 2 generators, APU speed regulation for APU generator.

In case of no ELEC PWR connected and BAT pushbuttons OFF the following equipment is still supplied:

Clocks, extinguishers*, IRS 1, refueling system.

LAND RECOVERY pushbutton switch allows the power source of some systems normally supplied from DC NORM BUS to be transfered. These systems are:

Slats and Flaps (one motor each recovered), Anti-skid, Part of SPD BRK and SPLRS recovered (ground and flight).

On engine, bleed air is taken from:

An high pressure (HP) or an low pressure (LP) stage.

During APU start the white ON light in the START pushbutton switch goes off:

There is a fault, the starter motor electrical supply has failed and a re-start is required.

Pressing the START pushbutton switch:

Arms the start circuit and closes the air conditioning system.

The purpose of the APU is to provide:

Pneumatic power supply.

What are the conditions for the deployment of the reversers?

A/C on ground N2 < 68%.

What is the meaning of the green REV light?

Translating sleeves are reaching at least 90% of their travel. Thrust may be applied.

When you select reverse thrust and the translating sleeves are 90% deployed:

The message REVERSE OPEN appears on ECAM.

Air leak detection is provided by:

Detection loops.

Compressed air may be obtained from:

Engine compressors or APU only. There is no other source.

If the ENG BLEED VALVE FAULT light illuminates to indicate a temperature or pressure regulation failure:

The bleed valve must be closed by selecting OFF/R

The landing gear is selected down. The position detector is on SYS 1 and only the overhead position indicator shows an unsafe indication:

ECAM will prompt the Crew to switch to position detector SYS 2.

The function of the bleed valve is to:

Regulate downstream pressure at 46 PSI.

The pneumatic system mainly supplies air for:

Both answers are correct.

When APU BLEED switch is selected to ON and air is bled from APU, the AUTO mode is selected, the crossfeed valve (X FEED Valve):

Opens.

When LOCK light flashes on the SFPI:

The slat and Krueger flap retraction are inhibited.

An overheat of the hydraulic fluid is indicated by:

The illumination of the OVHT light on the hydraulic panel and the amber TEMP indication on the ECAM HYD page.

What is the correct engine driven pump output pressure?:

2200 psi.

During rejected takeoff with a wheel speed of less than 85 kt (autobrake at MAX):

The autobrake will operate when reverse thrust is selected.

Illumination of the integrated green bar on AUTO BRK MAX/MED/LOW PB switch indicates:

The autothrottle releases.

Nose wheel steering is provided with:

Green system.

By means of the SERVO CTL PB switches it is possible to switch off the hydraulic supply of the primary flight controls…

of maximum one system.

What is the meaning of a red UNLK light illuminated on the LDG GEAR indicating panel?

The corresponding door is not closed.

Which device inhibits the red arrow light on the landing gear level panel?

No inhibition is possible.

With only the green hydraulic system operating, you have to perform a landing gear gravity extension. What happens to the nose wheel steering?

The nose wheel steering is lost.

Both engine throttle levers being at idle position, how can the ground spoiler preselection be achieved?

Preselection is automatic 3 seconds after touch down.

Both pitch trim levers trip to off:

Horizontal stabilizer cannot be moved.

By what means is each primary control surface aileron, elevator and rudder moved?

Three independent hydraulic servo controls.

Roll artificial feel is provided by:

A springloaded rod.

What happens when you select the three servo control pushbutton switches to OFF at the same time?

The last selected servo control valve remains open.

What is the purpose of the pitch uncoupling solenoid?

To allow the uncoupling of the elevators in case of JAM, when IAS between 30 kts and 195 kts.

What happens if you have to land with the center tank not empty?

The feeding is switched from center tank to inner tanks 3 minutes after slats extension until the engine shutdown.

How many engine driven pumps are there to pressurize the hydraulic system?:

2 pumps (one on each engine for the green system). 1 pump on ENG 1 for the blue system. 1 pump on ENG 2 for the yellow system.

One PTU can be used in flight:

If GREEN system is powered by 2 engine driven pumps.

The RAT can be extended:

Even with the YELLOW quantity indicator at zero level, as the Yellow reservoir contains a RAT FLUID RESERVE of 3 liters.

What are the pneumatic sources used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs?

Engine bleed air only.

In flight, slats retracted and the inner tanks feeding. A FWD fuel transfer is required and initiated. Is it possible to stop the INR TK PUMPs again and re-activate the CTR TK PUMPs?

Yes, if the fuel level in the CTR TK reaches again the calibration sensor level.

The fuel Low Pressure valves (LP - fire shutoff valves) are controlled:

Using an LP valves pushbutton on the Fuel panel.

The LO LVL warning light illuminates red when the remaining fuel is:

900 kgs (2000 lbs) in the center tank.

The OUTER TANK fuel pump pushbuttons are pressed in. The outer tank pump runs:

As soon as a pump of an inner tank fails.

There is only one combined isolation valve on LH side for:

LH center and LH inner tank supply line.

FAULT light illuminates on ENG ANTI-ICE pushbutton when:

During transit.

With all fuel tanks full, how can the automatic feed mode be deselected?

Switching OFF the AUTOFEED MODE swith on the overhead panel.

How many bottles are there in the cargo fire extinguishing system?:

One for each compartment.

How many fire bottles are there per engine?

One bottle

If one fire detection loop is defective:

Fire detection is provided by remaining loop.

The squib test is used to check the:

Condition of the squib.

When smoke is detected in BULK or AFT cargo compartment:

Associated isolation valve closes.

When the engine fire handle is pulled, what is the consequence on the air bleed and anti-ice systems?:

BLEED & HP valves close, the loss of air supply resulting in the closure of other valves.

Where is the SMOKE light of the minimum equipment bay located?

There is none, the smoke warning in on ECAM only.

Are all the probes heated on ground?

No. TAT probes are not heated and PITOT probes are on low heat.

The engagement of the second AP is only possible, if?

With activated LAND mode.

In case of electrical supply failure the nacelle ANTI-ICE valve:

Stays in the same position.

What is the purpose of the WINDOW HEAT PWR pushbuttons?

To increase the heating level.

Window heat. What is the correct statement?

Windshields and windows are defogged.

Wing anti-ice consists in heating:

All the leading edge.

WING ANTI-ICE pushbutton ON, APU supply:

All anti-ice valves are opened.

Alpha floor function is inhibited:

Below 500 ft AGL.

If after take-off the HDG SELECT MODE (HDG/S) has to be enganged, what is the action?

Select the FMS HDG page and enter the HDG into.

If the GO lever is set to take-off, what is the correct FMA display?

The FMA shows THR – SRS/ALT – RWY or HDG or HDG/S.

On the FMA, what is the normal and correct display for ATS operation when SRS, SPD (LVL/CH) and/or GO-AROUND mode is active in AP/FD?

The FMA shows ALPHA mode.

Which statement regarding the weather radar and its stabilization is correct?

The tilt is the angle between the radar beam and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

Thrust latch (THR L) mode engages when:

Go lever is pressed and no slats during approach or when alpha floor protection is activated.

What is the meaning of the AUTOLAND warning?

After activation it shows that the AFS status allows an successful AUTOLAND.

How many IRS are installed?:

3 independent IRS are installed. IRS 1 primarily supplies the Captain's instruments. IRS 2 primarily supplies the First Officer's instruments. IRS 3 is in standby and Captain has priority.

ILS power supply is done by:

ILS 1 is supplied by AC EMER BUS and ILS 2 by AC BUS 1.

On which ISDU DSPL SEL position are the STS (status) codes shown? :

HDG/STS.

The heading information for…

CPT ADF/RMI is coming from IRS 2 or after FO's ATT/HDG transfer from IRS3.

Tuning of the ILS course and/or frequency with at least one Autopilot engaged is inhibited below 700 feet!?:

True.

What is the meaning of the BAT OPER light illuminated on MSU?

Mode Selector has been set to NAV (start of alignment), light will go off after 5 seconds. It also indicates if the IRS is being supplied by its respective aircraft battery

Which Bus Failure causes FMS 1 to fail?:

AC EMER BUS.