Chapter 26

What organization certified SCBA?

A. Insurance Service Office (ISO)

B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF)

D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

When using SCBA, where does the air supply come from?

A. The ambient air

B. The user carries it

C. A stationary air cylinder

D. A large stationary generator

B. The user carries it

Only _____ open-circuit or closed-circuit SCBA is allowed in incidents where personnel are exposed to hazardous materials.

A. chemical

B. nonpowered

C. positive-pressure

D. pressure-demand

C. positive-pressure

Why are supplied-air respirators (SARs) not certified for use in fire fighting operations?

A. Excessive weight increases physical stress

B. Cannot supply positive pressure to the face

C. Potential damage to the hose from heat, fire, or debris

D. Not enough air to escape from a hazardous environment

C. Potential damage to the hose from heat, fire, or debris

A supplied-air respirator (SAR) used at a hazmat incident must:

A. carry/supply its own air

B. be certified for firefighting operations

C. provide positive pressure to the facepiece

D. have an airline of longer than 300 feet (90m)

C. provide positive pressure to the facepiece

APRs must be used only in atmospheres that are NOT oxygen deficient or oxygen enriched and are not IDLH because the:

A. ambient air supplies the oxygen

B. air generator may fail at any moment

C. purifying canister may be expired or damaged

D. responder may not properly use the equipment

A. ambient air supplies the oxygen

Which type of filter is MOST likely to be used when biological hazards are known to be present?

A. Powered

B. Ambient air

C. Vapour reducing

D. Particulate removing

D. Particulate removing

Particulate-removing filters on APRs are used to protect the user from materials such as:

A. asbestos

B. carbon monoxide

C. low oxygen atmospheres

D. fireground gases and smoke

A. asbestos

What is a common feature of respiratory equipment?

A. Enhanced visibility

B. Increase mobility

C. May cause shortness of breath

D. Decreased ability to communicate

D. Decreased ability to communicate

The U.S. Department of Homeland Security has adopted NIOSH and _____ standards for protective clothing used at hazmat/WMD incident.

A. International Firestop Council (IFC)

B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF)

D. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?

A. Gases and vapours can penetrate the garments

B. Liquid chemicals cannot penetrate the garments

C. Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist

D. Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate

A. Gases and vapours can penetrate the garments

High temperature protective clothing is designed to protect the wearer from:

A. chemical hazards

B. inhalation hazards

C. long-term exposures to high temperatures

D. short-term exposures to high temperatures

D. short-term exposures to high temperatures

What type of PPE allows a responder to work in total flame for a short period of time?

A. Body armour

B. Type C suit

C. Proximity suit

D. Fire-entry suit

D. Fire-entry suit

CPC can contribute to heat disorders in hot environments because it:

A. can degrade

B. absorbs sunlight

C. is designed to be impermeable to moisture

D. allows penetration of hot fluids from the outside

C. is designed to be impermeable to moisture

Which of the following statements about CPC is MOST accurate?

A. CPC protects against all types of chemical

B. CPC is only made from one type of material

C. It is appropriate for flammable environments

D. No single type of CPC can protect against all hazards

D. No single type of CPC can protect against all hazards

Which statement about nonencapsulating liquid splash protective clothing is accurate?

A. It is resistant to heat and flame exposure

B. It often exposes part of the head and neck

C. It protects against chemical vapours and gases

D. It does not impair worker mobility, vision, or communication

B. It often exposes part of the head and neck

Vapour protective clothing is usually part of level _____ protection.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

A. A

All emergency response organizations that routinely use CPC must establish a:

A. design procedure for new CPC

B. written CPC management program

C. research program to develop new CPC

D. nationally certified CPC training program

B. written CPC management program

When a chemical passes through a fabric on a molecular level, it is called:

A. permeation

B. penetration

C. degradation

D. contamination

A. permeation

What is it called when characteristics of a material are altered through contact with chemical substances?

A. Permeation

B. Penetration

C. Degradation

D. Contamination

C. Degradation

Which statement about the service life of CPC is MOST accurate?

A. CPC ensembles have no specific service life

B. Always follow AHJ SOPs and manufacturer's specifications in regards to serviceability

C. If a CPC garment is discoloured, it is still perfectly usable as long as the serviceability date has not passed

D. a CPC suit used in the hot zone does not need to be decontaminated unless contamination is verified visually

B. Always follow AHJ SOPs and manufacturer's specifications in regards to serviceability

What organization has established a set of chemical-protective PPE ensembles providing certain protection levels that are commonly used by fire and emergency service organizations?

A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF)

D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Which statement describes Level A PPE protection?

A. It does not require a special training to use

B. It is composed of a splash-protection but no protection purifying device

C. It provides excellent liquid splash-protection but no protection from chemical vapours or gases

D. It provides the highest level of protection against vapours, gases, mists, and particles, for the respiratory tract and skin

D. It provides the highest level of protection against vapours, gases, mists, and particles, for the respiratory tract and skin

Which level of PPE is worn when the highest level of respiratory protection is necessary, but a lesser level of skin protection is needed?

A. Level A

B. Level B

C. Level C

D. Level D

B. Level B

Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?

A. Level A

B. Level B

C. Level C

D. Level D

C. Level C

Level D PPE consists of:

A. typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls

B. hooded chemical resistant clothing and full-face or half-mask APRs

C. typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls with the addition of a half-mask APR

D. hooded chemical resistant clothing and positive-pressure, full facepiece, SCBA, or positive-pressure respirator with escape SCBA

A. typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls

In general, the higher the level of PPE, the greater the:

A. associated risks

B. media coverage

C. number of victims

D. amount of hazardous material

A. associated risks

Which statement about choosing PPE ensembles is accurate?

A. Chemical and physical hazard are less important selection factors when the duration of exposure is expected to be less than 15 minutes

B. Because the IC will select the appropriate level of PPE to be used at an incident, a responder does not need to understand the selection process

C. Overprotection, as well as under protection, can be hazardous and should be avoided

D. The highest available PPE should always be used in case there are unexpected hazards

C. Overprotection, as well as under protection, can be hazardous and should be avoided

Which is most likely to NOT be a factor for selecting protective clothing?

A. Size of incident

B. Exposure duration

C. Ease of decontamination

D. Material chemical resistance

A. Size of incident

When a hazardous material is a mixture of unknown chemicals, what type of PPE should be selected?

A. A level D ensemble should be selected

B. None, because the mission should be abandoned

C. If a level A ensemble is available, it should always be selected, no matter what the chemicals involved

D. An ensemble that demonstrates the best chemical resistance against the widest range of chemicals should be selected

D. An ensemble that demonstrates the best chemical resistance against the widest range of chemicals should be selected

How does wearing PPE increase the risk of heat-related disorders?

A. Most PPE has no effect on body temperature

B. Most PPE provides automatic cooling technology

C. Most PPE increases the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture

D. Most PPE inhibits the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture

D. Most PPE inhibits the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture

What is the most serious type of heat disorder?

A. Heat stroke

B. Heat rashes

C. Heat cramps

D. Heat exhaustion

A. Heat stroke

Why should beverages that contain alcohol or caffeine be avoided prior to working?

A. These beverages do not need to be avoided

B. These beverages decrease dehydration and heat stress

C. These beverages may increase productivity and awareness

D. These beverages can contribute to dehydration and heat stress

D. These beverages can contribute to dehydration and heat stress

Rehabbing in a warm area and avoiding cold beverages can help prevent:

A. heat stress

B. claustrophobia

C. cold emergencies

D. psychological issues

C. cold emergencies

Using chemical protective clothing can cause psychological stress because:

A. increased mobility may worry some users

B. increased oxygen levels can cause cognitive impairment

C. they may cause some users to feel confined or claustrophobic

D. facepieces may cause some users to be over confident and unnecessarily expose themselves to contaminants

C. they may cause some users to feel confined or claustrophobic

Which statement regarding medical monitoring of responders waring PPE is accurate?

A. Post-medical monitoring follow-up is also recommended

B. If vital signs are steady pre-entry, then they do not need to be taken again

C. Post-entry monitoring is not necessary is no exposure or contamination has occurred

D. If a facepiece makes a responder feel claustrophobic

A. Post-medical monitoring follow-up is also recommended

You must be proficient in donning your PPE because increased familiarity and comfort will lead to:

A. reduced stress

B. increased stress

C. increased work time

D. a custom fit ensemble

A. reduced stress

An operation check on PPE, communications equipment, and any equipment taken into the hot zone should be conducted:

A. pre-entry

B. post-entry

C. in a malfunction occurs

D. halfway through the incident

A. pre-entry

Incident status, identified hazards, and tasks to be performed should be communicate during the:

A. size-up

B. safety briefing

C. hazards assessment

D. post-incident briefing

B. safety briefing

Exposure means that:

A. you are radioactive

B. you may have had contact with a foreign substance

C. you must be immediately extracted from the hot zone

D. a hazardous material has entered or potentially entered your body

D. a hazardous material has entered or potentially entered your body

Which statement regarding PPE safety and emergency communication is accurate?

A. Hand signals should be designated for loss of air supply or suit integrity

B. Radio communications should be designated as a backup system only

C. Communication capabilities are only required for responders wearing SARs or APRs

D. Providing direction via a PA system or bullhorn is the universal emergency evacuation signal

A. Hand signals should be designated for loss of air supply or suit integrity

Where should PPE be donned?

A. Wherever is convenient

B. In a preselected area in the hot zone

C. In the apparatus on the way to the incident

D. In a preselected area in the cold zone as close to the entry point as possible

D. In a preselected area in the cold zone as close to the entry point as possible

When should PPE be donned?

A. Immediately upon arrival

B. After the mission briefing

C. Before the mission briefing

D. Once entry is made into the hot zone

B. After the mission briefing

When doffing PPE, what is the last item that should be removed?

A. Gloves

B. Coveralls

C. Footwear

D. Respirator facepiece

D. Respirator facepiece

Operational inspections of respiratory protection equipment?

A. must occur after each use

B. are subject to review by the NIOSH

C. are only required to be performed on a monthly basis

D. should be completed by the department's health and safety officer

A. must occur after each use

After using PPE at an incident, don't forget to:

A. discard it

B. leave it where the clean-up team can find it

C. fill out any required reports or documentation

D. wipe it down with warm water and then return it to service

C. fill out any required reports or documentation

Spill control tactics attempt to:

A. spill hazardous materials in a carefully controlled manner

B. remediate spilled hazardous materials from contaminated exposures

C. contain the product in its original container (or another) and prevent it from escaping

D. reduce the amount of contact the product makes with people, property, and the environment

D. reduce the amount of contact the product makes with people, property, and the environment

Why should an IC consult technical sources before using equipment to confine spilled materials?

A. To determine how to correctly use a piece of equipment

B. To determine if a similar situation has occurred in the past

C. To determine if the spilled material will adversely affect the equipment

D. To determine if the spilled material is able to be contained by the equipment

C. To determine if the spilled material will adversely affect the equipment

Why must responders treat and dispose of absorbents as hazardous materials?

A. Absorbents themselves are hazardous materials

B. Absorbents undergo violent chemical reactions after use

C. Absorbents may be toxic if exposed to too much oxygen

D. Absorbents retain the properties of the materials they absorb

D. Absorbents retain the properties of the materials they absorb

During the process of adsorption, the molecules of the liquid hazardous material:

A. physically adhere to the adsorbent material rather than being absorbed into its inner spaces

B. chemically adhere to the adsorbent material rather than being absorbed into its inner spaces

C. chemically adhere to the absorbent material rather than being adsorbed into its inner spaces

D. physically adhere to the absorbent material rather than being adsorbed into its inner spaces

A. physically adhere to the adsorbent material rather than being absorbed into its inner spaces

Which process might be used for the temporary mitigation of radioactive and biological substances?

A. Dilution

B. Absorption

C. Adsorption

D. Blanketing/covering

D. Blanketing/covering

Diking, damming, diverting, and retention:

A. reduce the emission of vapours at a hazmat incident

B. control air movement using natural or mechanical means

C. reduce the potential risks of liquid hazardous materials by dilution

D. control the flow of liquid hazardous materials away from the point of discharge

D. control the flow of liquid hazardous materials away from the point of discharge

To reduce the mission of vapours at a hazmat incident, responders should use:

A. ventilation

B. adsorption

C. vapour dispersion

D. vapour suppression

D. vapour suppression

What must responders do after using water streams for vapour dispersion?

A. Neutralize the corrosive contaminants in runoff water

B. Confine and analyze runoff water for possible decontamination

C. Dispose of equipment at though it were a hazardous material

D. Use chemical vapour suppressants to confine remaining vapours

B. Confine and analyze runoff water for possible decontamination

When choosing the type of ventilation to use, remember that:

A. zero-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than positive-pressure ventilation

B. neutral-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than negative-pressure ventilation

C. positive-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than negative-pressure ventilation

D. negative-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than positive-pressure ventilation

C. positive-pressure ventilation removes atmospheric contaminants more effectively than negative-pressure ventilation

One problem associated with dispersion is that it can:

A. only control small, shallow liquid spills

B. spread a hazardous material over a wide area

C. only be accomplished by creating a foam blanket

D. not be used on hydrocarbon spills such as oceanic crude oil

B. spread a hazardous material over a wide area

Responders use dilution more frequently when dealing with:

A. corrosive vapour

B. terrorist attacks

C. hydrocarbon spills

D. decontamination operations

D. decontamination operations

Which method of spill control involved raising or lowering the pH of corrosive materials?

A. Dilution

B. Neutralization

C. Vapour suppression

D. Blanketing/covering

B. Neutralization

Why should responders avoid contact with flammable or combustible products?

A. Protective clothing is extremely flexible

B. Protective clothing can ignite puddles, streams, or contaminated pools of these products

C. Protective clothing may not be able to withstand the corrosive effects of these products

D. Protective clothing can absorb these products and ignite if exposed to an ignition source

D. Protective clothing can absorb these products and ignite if exposed to an ignition source

Why should responders NOT use water streams in conjunction with the application of foam for vapour suppression?

A. Most foam concentrates are water reactive

B. Water is more effective than foam concentrates

C. Water destroys and washes away foam blankets

D. Foam concentrates should never come in contact with water

C. Water destroys and washes away foam blankets

To stop of limit the escape or to contain the release of a product either in its original container or by transferring it to a new one is the goal of:

A. fire control

B. spill control

C. leak control

D. dilution control

C. leak control

Provided they have appropriate training, equipment, and PPE, Operations level responders can take offensive actions, like leak control, in situation involving:

A. chlorine

B. anhydrous ammonia

C. radioactive materials

D. gasoline and natural gas fuels

D. gasoline and natural gas fuels

Which type of cargo tank truck does NOT typically have emergency shutoff devices?

A. High pressure tanks

B. Corrosive liquid tanks

C. Non-pressure liquid tanks

D. Low-pressure chemical tanks

B. Corrosive liquid tanks

At a fixed facility or at a pipeline, responders should NOT shut any valves without direction from:

A. law enforcement

B. federal authorities

C. the owner of the facility

D. facility or pipeline operators

D. facility or pipeline operators

Which type of decon may involve using wipes or other decon methods to remove soot from the face, head, and neck?

A. Mass

B. Gross

C. Technical

D. Emergency

B. Gross

An advantage of gross decontamination is that it:

A. does not involve water

B. will remove all contaminants

C. does not require follow-up decon

D. is conducted in the field, so the reduction of contaminants is immediate

D. is conducted in the field, so the reduction of contaminants is immediate

One of the disadvantages of emergency decontamination is that it:

A. is fast to implement

B. can harm the environment

C. requires minimal equipment

D. requires a formal decon corridor

B. can harm the environment

If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation they should immediately withdraw and:

A. set up a decon zone

B. notify law enforcement

C. sample themselves to determine the contaminant

D. follow local procedures for emergency decontamination

D. follow local procedures for emergency decontamination

What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?

A. Exposure records

B. A leave of absence

C. Exposure justification

D. Immediate hospitalization

A. Exposure records

The chronology of events, activities that occurred during an incident and decon procedures must be documented in the:

A. size-up

B. SOPs

C. activity log

D. preincident plan

B. SOPs