Pharm Final

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Last updated 11:23 PM on 10/10/26
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67 Terms

1
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Why should the provider wear gloves when administering nitroglycerin?

To avoid accidental transdermal absorption of nitroglycerin by the provider

2
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What drug is used to treat torsades de pointes?

Magnesium sulfate

3
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How should you handle morphine when only part of a pre‑loaded syringe is administered?

Waste the unused portion according to controlled‑substance protocol with a witness

4
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When is norepinephrine contraindicated?

When the patient has untreated hypovolemia

5
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What is identified in pharmacokinetics?

How the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes a drug

6
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What will parasympathetic (muscarinic) stimulation result in?

Bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, and increased GI activity

7
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What is the definition of diffusion?

Movement of molecules from high concentration to low concentration

8
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Which drug provides the strongest positive inotropic, chronotropic, and vasoconstrictive effects?

Epinephrine

9
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Why would dopamine administration be ineffective therapy for a Parkinson’s disease patient?

Dopamine cannot cross the blood–brain barrier to reach the CNS

10
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How do you calculate a drip rate?

(Volume to be administered × drip factor) ÷ time in minutes

11
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What is the standard fluid bolus for a pediatric patient suffering from dehydration?

20 mL/kg

12
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Which antidepressant is expected to have the lowest occurrence of severe side effects?

Sertraline (an SSRI)

13
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What is the enteral route?

Delivery of medication through the gastrointestinal tract

14
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Epinephrine 1:1000 has which of the following considerations?

It is the concentration used for intramuscular dosing

15
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What is prochlorperazine used for?

Managing nausea, vomiting, and vertigo

16
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Why is IM glucagon less likely to work in newborns?

Newborns have insufficient liver glycogen stores for glucagon to mobilize

17
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If a patient is prescribed lithium and diazepam, what disorders would you suspect?

Bipolar disorder with anxiety

18
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Which drug is most commonly given in the prehospital setting for absorption of an ingested poison?

Activated charcoal

19
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Why might elderly patients have a different response to a medication?

Age‑related changes in metabolism, excretion, and body composition alter drug effects

20
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Which medication prescribed for grand mal seizures is a barbiturate?

Phenobarbital

21
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Which of the following are organophosphate nerve agents?

Sarin, Soman, Tabun, and VX

22
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An IV established in the medial aspect of a patient’s left forearm is most likely in which vessel?

Basilic vein

23
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What causes the sedation side effect often seen with first‑generation antihistamines?

High lipid solubility allowing the drug to cross the blood–brain barrier and block central H1 receptors

24
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Which statement best describes your responsibility as an EMT regarding medication administration?

Verify all medication rights, ensure indications/contraindications are checked, and administer only medications authorized by standing orders or medical control

25
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Which of the following would most likely cause a higher concentration of a medication in a patient’s body?

Renal failure reducing drug excretion

26
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What should be administered to a hypoglycemic neonate?

IV dextrose

27
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In which condition should phenylephrine be avoided?

Use of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

28
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Which antipsychotic would be expected to have the lowest chance of side effects at therapeutic doses?

Aripiprazole (second-generation)

29
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Which medication administration route has the fastest onset of action?

IV

30
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What is the typical drug‑reference dose of levalbuterol when administered for an acute asthma attack?

1.25 mg

31
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Which of the following is a contraindication or precaution for rectal medication administration?

Recent rectal surgery or active rectal bleeding

32
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Vasopressin would most likely be administered to a patient suffering from

Septic shock with refractory hypotension

33
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Which medication lowers blood pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscle and slowing AV‑node conduction to reduce cardiac output?

Diltiazem

34
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Phenobarbital sodium IV push (200 mg/mL) is most commonly used to treat which disorder?

Status epilepticus

35
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What is the preferred fluid to replace lost fluid in situations involving burn patients?

Lactated Ringer’s (LR)

36
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Which statement best defines pharmacokinetics?

How the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes a drug

37
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Which of the following is MOST likely to cause hemolysis while obtaining a blood sample?

Applying excessive suction or using a needle that is too small

38
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Pralidoxime is administered to a victim suffering from what type of poisoning?

Organophosphate or nerve agent poisoning

39
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Which of the following is a common side effect of nitroglycerin?

Headache

40
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Positive chronotropic effects are best defined as:

An increase in heart rate

41
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MAOIs treat depression by which mechanism of action?

Inhibiting monoamine oxidase to increase serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine levels

42
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Which drug is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent used in drug‑assisted intubation?

Succinylcholine

43
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A normal saline bolus is MOST appropriate for which patient?

Patient with hypotension and signs of poor perfusion

44
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Lidocaine belongs to which class of antidysrhythmic drugs? (Sodium Channel Blocker)

Class 1B

45
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What class of antiarrhythmic drug is procainamide?

Class Ia

46
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Drugs are most often expelled from the body by which route?

Renal excretion (urine)

47
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Epinephrine’s adrenergic properties place it in which drug category?

Alpha‑ and beta‑adrenergic agonist (sympathomimetic catecholamine)

48
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What is the brand name of metaproterenol?

Alupent

49
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What is the general cardiac action of Dilantin (phenytoin)?

Improves AV‑node conduction and stabilizes ventricular electrical activity

50
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Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?

0.45% Normal Saline

51
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Which medication is used to treat acetaminophen overdose?

N‑acetylcysteine (NAC)

52
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What is the primary side effect of oxytocin?

Uterine hyperstimulation (excessive contractions)

53
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Acute dystonic reactions caused by haloperidol are typically treated with which medication?

Diphenhydramine

54
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Nalbuphine (Nubain) belongs to which drug classification?

Mixed opioid agonist–antagonist (κ‑agonist / μ‑antagonist)

55
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Which medication must be mixed with a diluent prior to administration?

Glucagon

56
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A medication that may cause a fetus to be deformed or killed is described as:

Teratogenic

57
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An acetaminophen overdose can lead to which life‑threatening condition?

Hepatic Necrosis

58
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Which class of medications must only be administered when airway control and vasoactive drugs are immediately available?

Neuromuscular blocking agents (paralytics)

59
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Which of the following is a synthetic sympathetic agonist?

Phenylephrine

60
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The mechanism of action for vecuronium differs from succinylcholine in which principal way?

Vecuronium competitively blocks acetylcholine receptors, while succinylcholine activates them and causes persistent depolarization.

61
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Where was atropine originally obtained?

Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade)

62
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Why do we give nitroglycerin to patients we suspect are having a heart attack?

It reduces preload and afterload, decreasing cardiac workload and relieving ischemic pain.

63
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What may be given in a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose?

Sodium bicarbonate

64
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What is the correct therapeutic dosage range for ibuprofen in standard drug references?

200–800 mg per dose

65
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What does butorphanol do?

Mixed opioid agonist–antagonist that provides analgesia with less respiratory depression

66
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Why would you hang a 100 mL bag of D5W for an adult patient?

To deliver medications requiring a small-volume carrier line

67
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By what mechanism does amiodarone prolong repolarization and the effective refractory period of cardiac muscle?

Potassium channel blockade