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Last updated 6:49 PM on 9/4/26
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274 Terms

1
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What is immunology?

The study of how a host or person responds to foreign substances and infectious agents.

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What is an antigen (Ag)?

A foreign substance recognized by the immune system that can react with an antibody or sensitized T cell.

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What is an antibody (Ab)?

A specific immunoglobulin produced by activated B cells in response to an antigen.

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What is immunity?

The condition in which the body is resistant to infection or disease.

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What is humoral immunity?

Antibody-mediated immunity; it depends mainly on B lymphocytes and the antibodies they produce.

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What is cell-mediated immunity?

Immunity mediated by T lymphocytes and their effects on infected, abnormal, or foreign cells.

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How is an immunogen different from an antigen?

An antigen can be recognized/react with immune products; an immunogen is an antigen capable of actively triggering an immune response.

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What was variolation?

Deliberate exposure to material from smallpox lesions in hopes of producing protection against smallpox.

9
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What did Edward Jenner observe?

People who had contracted cowpox were generally protected from smallpox.

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What is cross-immunity?

Protection against one antigen produced by exposure to a related antigen.

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What is vaccination?

Introducing infectious or antigenic material to stimulate immunity.

12
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What is attenuation?

Weakening or modifying an infectious agent, such as by heat, aging, or chemical treatment, so it has reduced virulence but can stimulate immunity.

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Who is credited with developing the first attenuated vaccine?

Louis Pasteur.

14
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What are the key characteristics of innate immunity?

It is present at birth, nonspecific, does not require previous exposure, and acts as the body's first line of defense.

15
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What are the key characteristics of adaptive immunity?

It develops after antigen exposure, is directed toward a particular antigen/pathogen, and has specificity and immunologic memory.

16
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What are the two major arms of adaptive immunity?

Humoral immunity (B cells/antibodies) and cell-mediated immunity (T cells).

17
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Give examples of external innate defenses.

Unbroken skin, mucous membranes, sweat, skin oils, acidic skin pH, respiratory mucus/cilia, urinary flushing, acidic urine, vaginal acidity, stomach acid, lysozyme, and normal flora.

18
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How does normal flora protect the body?

It occupies attachment sites and competes with pathogens for nutrients and space.

19
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What does lysozyme do and where is it found?

It is an antibacterial enzyme found in tears and saliva.

20
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What do internal defenses do?

They act after an organism enters the body; examples include WBCs, phagocytosis, acute phase reactants, antibodies, and complement.

21
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What are the two major properties of a complete antigen?

Immunogenicity (ability to stimulate an immune response) and reactivity (ability to react with products of that response).

22
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What factors influence the strength of an immune response?

Age, health status, antigen dose, route of inoculation, genetics, foreignness, molecular size, chemical complexity, and processability.

23
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Which types of molecules are usually strong antigens?

Proteins are usually strong antigens because they are large and structurally complex; polysaccharides are also often effective antigens.

24
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What is an epitope?

The small portion of an antigen recognized by a B cell, antibody, or T cell; also called an antigenic determinant.

25
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Why is epitope shape important?

Immune receptors must fit the epitope.

26
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What is valence?

The number of antigenic determinants or antibody-binding sites available on an antigen.

27
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What is a hapten?

A small molecule that usually cannot stimulate an immune response by itself.

28
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What must happen for a hapten to become immunogenic?

It must attach to a larger carrier molecule.

29
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A small molecule can bind antibody but cannot stimulate an immune response alone. What is it?

A hapten.

30
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What is an autoantigen?

An antigen belonging to the person's own body.

31
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What is an alloantigen?

An antigen from another person of the same species.

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What is a heteroantigen?

An antigen from a different species.

33
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What are heterophile antigens?

Identical or very similar antigens between different species that can cause cross-reactions.

34
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What is an adjuvant?

A substance added to an antigen or vaccine to strengthen the immune response.

35
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What are acute phase reactants?

Serum substances whose concentrations change during infection, injury, trauma, or inflammation.

36
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What are major functions of acute phase reactants?

Enhance phagocytosis, promote opsonization and inflammation, activate complement, limit tissue damage, support clotting/wound healing, and bind/remove damaging substances.

37
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Which cytokines stimulate production of acute phase reactants?

IL-1 beta, IL-6, and TNF-alpha.

38
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What is CRP and when does it rise?

C-reactive protein is a nonspecific acute inflammatory marker that rises rapidly with infection, inflammation, surgery, trauma, tissue injury, and other inflammatory conditions.

39
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What does CRP do?

Promotes opsonization and agglutination, activates complement, binds phagocytes, and increases phagocytosis.

40
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Why can't an elevated CRP identify a specific disease?

CRP is a nonspecific indicator that rises in many inflammatory conditions.

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What can a falling CRP suggest?

Treatment may be effective or inflammation may be resolving.

42
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What is the significance of high-sensitivity CRP?

An elevated hs-CRP is associated with increased myocardial infarction risk.

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What is serum amyloid A?

An acute phase reactant produced mainly by the liver that rises during infection/inflammation and assists with cleanup of damaged tissue.

44
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What are the major functions of complement?

Opsonization, chemotaxis, cell lysis, and promotion of inflammation.

45
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What does mannose-binding protein do?

Acts as an opsonin by binding mannose-containing structures on bacteria, yeasts, and viruses.

46
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What is the major function of alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT)?

It inhibits proteolytic enzymes, especially elastase, thereby limiting tissue damage and protecting lung tissue.

47
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Why can AAT deficiency contribute to emphysema?

Without enough AAT, elastase can damage alveolar tissue.

48
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What does haptoglobin bind?

Free hemoglobin released during intravascular hemolysis.

49
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Why is haptoglobin important?

It removes free hemoglobin that could damage tissues and promote oxidative injury.

50
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What does fibrinogen do?

It is converted to fibrin during clotting; it strengthens wounds, supports healing, creates a barrier against bacterial entry, and promotes RBC aggregation.

51
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What does ceruloplasmin do?

Transports copper and oxidizes iron from ferrous to ferric form.

52
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Ceruloplasmin deficiency is associated with what disease?

Wilson disease.

53
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What are the five major WBC types?

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes.

54
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Which WBCs are granulocytes?

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.

55
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Which granulocyte is especially effective at phagocytosis?

Neutrophil.

56
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What is another name for a neutrophil?

Seg or polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN).

57
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What is the typical nuclear appearance of a neutrophil?

Approximately 2–5 lobes.

58
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What are primary neutrophil granules also called?

Azurophilic granules.

59
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Name important contents of primary neutrophil granules.

Myeloperoxidase, elastase, proteinase 3, lysozyme, and other antimicrobial enzymes.

60
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What do secondary neutrophil granules contain?

Collagenase, lactoferrin, lysozyme, and NADPH-related antimicrobial activity.

61
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What is the marginating pool?

Neutrophils positioned near/attached to blood vessel walls rather than freely circulating.

62
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What is the typical appearance of an eosinophil?

Bilobed nucleus with large orange-to-red-orange granules.

63
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When are eosinophils commonly increased?

Allergic reactions and parasitic infections, especially helminths.

64
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What are important eosinophil functions?

Help destroy parasites, participate in allergic inflammation, neutralize products of basophils/mast cells, and can perform limited phagocytosis.

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What is the typical appearance of a basophil?

Coarse, deep blue or purple granules.

66
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What important substances are stored in basophil granules?

Histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factor A.

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What does histamine do?

Causes blood vessel dilation and contracts smooth muscle.

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What does heparin do?

Acts as an anticoagulant.

69
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What does eosinophil chemotactic factor do?

Attracts eosinophils to the area.

70
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Which immunoglobulin binds to basophil membranes during allergic reactions?

IgE.

71
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What is the main immune role of basophils?

They help initiate and maintain immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

72
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How are mast cells similar to basophils?

They bind IgE and release histamine, heparin, and other mediators during allergic/hypersensitivity reactions.

73
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What happens to monocytes after they enter tissues?

They can become macrophages.

74
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What are major macrophage functions?

Phagocytosis, destruction of intracellular parasites, removal of debris, antigen presentation to T cells, initiation of adaptive responses, and participation in inflammation/tissue cleanup.

75
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What are macrophages called in the lungs?

Alveolar macrophages.

76
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What are macrophages called in the liver?

Kupffer cells.

77
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What are macrophages called in the brain?

Microglial cells.

78
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What are macrophages called in connective tissue?

Histiocytes.

79
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Why are dendritic cells important?

They phagocytize foreign material and present antigen fragments to helper T cells, linking innate recognition to adaptive activation.

80
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Where are Langerhans cells found?

Skin and mucous membranes.

81
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What do toll-like receptors recognize?

Molecular patterns associated with foreign organisms, helping initiate innate immune responses.

82
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Define phagocytosis.

The process by which a cell surrounds, engulfs, digests, and removes foreign material.

83
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What are the four main phases of phagocytosis?

1) Contact and engulfment, 2) phagosome formation, 3) phagolysosome formation, 4) digestion and exocytosis.

84
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What is a phagosome?

An intracellular vesicle containing an engulfed particle.

85
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How does a phagolysosome form?

Cytoplasmic granules and lysosomes fuse with the phagosome.

86
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What is opsonization?

Coating a foreign antigen so phagocytes can recognize, attach to, and engulf it more easily.

87
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Name important opsonins.

IgG antibodies, CRP, complement components, mannose-binding protein, and other acute phase reactants.

88
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What happens during the respiratory/oxidative burst?

The phagocyte increases oxygen consumption and generates toxic oxygen products that kill engulfed microorganisms.

89
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What is the oxidative-burst sequence emphasized in these notes?

NADP → NADPH → superoxide → hydrogen peroxide via superoxide dismutase → hypochlorite via myeloperoxidase plus chloride.

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What bleach-like substance is produced during the oxidative burst?

Hypochlorite.

91
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What are the four classic signs of inflammation?

Redness, swelling, heat, and pain.

92
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Why does redness occur during inflammation?

Increased blood flow.

93
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Why does swelling occur during inflammation?

Increased capillary permeability causes fluid and cells to move into tissues.

94
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What causes heat during inflammation?

Increased blood flow and accumulation of immune cells.

95
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What causes pain during inflammation?

Tissue swelling, inflammatory mediators, and local injury.

96
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What does histamine do during acute inflammation?

Causes vasodilation and contributes to increased vascular permeability.

97
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What are chemotaxins?

Chemical signals that direct WBCs toward an infection or injury.

98
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What is diapedesis?

Movement of neutrophils and other WBCs through blood vessel walls into infected or injured tissue.

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What is the primary cell in acute inflammation?

Neutrophil.

100
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Put the key events of acute inflammation in order.

Injury/infection → mast-cell histamine release → vasodilation → increased blood flow → increased capillary permeability → fluid/WBC movement into tissue → chemotaxis → neutrophil diapedesis → macrophage activity → phagocytosis/cleanup.