V 2 MH EXAM 2

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Last updated 12:39 AM on 10/5/26
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176 Terms

1
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What are the key components of a focused assessment for adults with mental health alterations?

History, physical assessment, psychosocial assessment, lab data, and informatics resources.

2
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Which types of mental health alterations require patient-centered care management?

Anxiety, crisis, dissociative disorders, PTSD, and substance abuse.

3
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What are the professional roles of nurses when providing ethical and compassionate care?

Using Professional Standards of Nursing, ethical considerations, communication, delegation, leadership, and quality measures.

4
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What is the nurse's role in developing appropriate nursing diagnoses for adults with mental health issues?

Apply the nursing process for diagnoses, goals, actions, and evaluation for anxiety, crisis, dissociative disorders, PTSD, and substance abuse.

5
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What is the nursing goal in facilitating self-management for patients with mental health disorders?

Promote health and safety in adults with anxiety, crisis, dissociative disorders, PTSD, and substance abuse.

6
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What is the definition of stress according to Cannon's theory?

Stress involves the body's fight-or-flight response to perceived threats.

7
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What are the stages of Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?

Alarm (acute stress), resistance (adaptation), and exhaustion.

8
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How does unmanaged chronic stress affect health?

It can cause chronic anxiety, depression, sleep disturbances, fatigue, and increased risk for stroke.

9
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What is the definition of eustress?

Eustress is a positive, motivating form of stress that enhances performance.

10
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What are common relaxation techniques for stress management?

Deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, meditation, and guided imagery.

11
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What is the definition of anxiety?

Anxiety is a feeling of apprehension, uncertainty, or dread from a real or perceived threat.

12
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What is the purpose of normal anxiety?

Normal anxiety is a healthy reaction and an evolutionary strategy for survival.

13
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Who developed the four levels of anxiety?

Peplau (1968) developed the levels of anxiety: mild, moderate, severe, and panic.

14
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What are the four levels of anxiety?

The four levels of anxiety are mild, moderate, severe, and panic.

15
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What are the characteristics of mild anxiety?

Slight discomfort, restlessness, and mild tension-relieving behaviors like nail biting or fidgeting.

16
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What happens to a person's focus during mild anxiety?

Individuals perceive reality in sharp focus and can grasp more information.

17
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What are the physical symptoms of mild anxiety?

Discomfort, restlessness, slight tension-relieving behaviors like nail biting or fidgeting.

18
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What are the characteristics of moderate anxiety?

Narrowed perceptual field, selective inattention, and increased physiological symptoms like a rapid pulse.

19
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What happens to perception during moderate anxiety?

The perceptual field narrows, and some environmental details are excluded unless pointed out.

20
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What physical symptoms occur during moderate anxiety?

Increased pulse, respiratory rate, perspiration, and mild somatic symptoms like headache or gastric discomfort.

21
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What are the characteristics of severe anxiety?

Greatly reduced perceptual field, focus on one detail, inability to learn or problem-solve, and somatic symptoms.

22
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How does perception change during severe anxiety?

The focus is on one particular detail or many scattered details, with a disregard for the environment.

23
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What are the somatic symptoms of severe anxiety?

Trembling, pounding heart, hyperventilation, headache, nausea, dizziness, and a sense of impending doom.

24
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What are the characteristics of panic anxiety?

Marked dysregulation of behavior, inability to process the environment, detachment from reality, and extreme somatic symptoms.

25
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What are common physical symptoms of panic anxiety?

Racing heart, sweating, chills, hot flashes, trembling, shortness of breath, chest pain, and abdominal cramping.

26
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What are the psychological symptoms of panic anxiety?

Feelings of impending doom, detachment from reality, and inability to function.

27
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What is the difference between severe and panic anxiety?

Panic anxiety involves complete dysregulation of behavior and loss of touch with reality, whereas severe anxiety still allows limited focus on details.

28
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What are examples of anxiety disorders?

Separation anxiety disorder, specific phobias, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, agoraphobia, and generalized anxiety disorder.

29
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What is an anxiety disorder?

A psychiatric condition where anxiety interferes with personal, occupational, or social functioning.

30
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What is the defining characteristic of an anxiety disorder?

Anxiety interferes to such a degree that it disrupts functioning in personal, social, or occupational areas.

31
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What is a phobia?

An irrational fear of a specific object, situation, or activity, leading to avoidance behavior.

32
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What is the purpose of defense mechanisms in anxiety disorders?

Defense mechanisms protect individuals from anxiety and maintain self-image.

33
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What is a crisis?

A profound disruption of normal functioning due to an overwhelming event.

34
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What are the three types of crisis?

Maturational, situational, and adventitious.

35
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What is the top goal for a patient suffering from panic?

The top goal is to reduce anxiety to a manageable level and ensure patient safety.

36
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What are three positive stress busters?

Exercise, meditation, and deep breathing are effective positive stress busters.

37
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What is dissociation?

A defense mechanism where an individual separates themselves from their thoughts, identity, or environment due to trauma.

38
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What are the symptoms of dissociative identity disorder (DID)?

Multiple distinct personalities, memory gaps, and confusion about identity.

39
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What is PTSD?

A mental health condition triggered by experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event.

40
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What are the four cardinal symptoms of PTSD?

Intrusion, avoidance, negative mood, and hyperarousal.

41
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What is the focus of PTSD treatment?

Trauma-focused psychotherapy, cognitive restructuring, and stress reduction.

42
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What is the purpose of the CAGE questionnaire?

To screen for potential alcohol use disorders.

43
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What is the AUDIT questionnaire used for?

To assess alcohol consumption patterns and potential misuse.

44
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What are common withdrawal symptoms from alcohol?

Tremors, sweating, nausea, seizures, and anxiety.

45
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What is Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A severe neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency, often related to chronic alcoholism.

46
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What is opioid intoxication characterized by?

Euphoria, drowsiness, respiratory depression, and constricted pupils.

47
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What is opioid withdrawal characterized by?

Muscle aches, sweating, diarrhea, vomiting, and dilated pupils.

48
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What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of methadone?

Methadone binds to opioid receptors, reducing cravings and withdrawal symptoms.

49
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What are common side effects of methadone?

Respiratory depression, constipation, and sedation.

50
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What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of naloxone?

Naloxone reverses opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors.

51
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What are common side effects of naloxone?

Nausea, vomiting, rapid heart rate, and sweating.

52
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What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of buprenorphine?

Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist that reduces withdrawal symptoms and cravings.

53
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What are common side effects of buprenorphine?

Sweating, nausea, insomnia, and constipation.

54
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What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of disulfiram (Antabuse)?

Disulfiram inhibits the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing negative reactions with alcohol.

55
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What are common side effects of disulfiram (Antabuse)?

Metallic taste, drowsiness, and liver toxicity.

56
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What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of acamprosate (Campral)?

Acamprosate restores the balance of GABA and glutamate, reducing alcohol cravings.

57
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What are common side effects of acamprosate (Campral)?

Diarrhea, fatigue, and rash.

58
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What are the primary pharmacological interventions for alcohol use disorder?

Naltrexone, acamprosate, and disulfiram.

59
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What is the role of naltrexone in substance abuse treatment?

Naltrexone blocks opioid receptors, reducing the pleasure associated with alcohol and opioids.

60
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What are common side effects of naltrexone?

Nausea, headache, and dizziness.

61
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What is clonidine used for in substance abuse treatment?

Clonidine reduces symptoms of opioid withdrawal, such as sweating and restlessness.

62
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What are common side effects of clonidine?

Dry mouth, drowsiness, and low blood pressure.

63
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What is motivational interviewing in the context of substance abuse treatment?

A counseling method that encourages patients to explore their ambivalence and commit to change.

64
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What are the key components of a psychosocial assessment in substance abuse?

Substance use history, coping strategies, social support, and comorbid psychiatric conditions.

65
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What are the symptoms of stimulant intoxication?

Increased heart rate, dilated pupils, euphoria, and agitation.

66
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What are the symptoms of stimulant withdrawal?

Fatigue, depression, increased appetite, and sleep disturbances.

67
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What is the role of benzodiazepines in anxiety treatment?

Benzodiazepines enhance GABA, producing a calming effect on the nervous system.

68
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What are common side effects of benzodiazepines?

Drowsiness, dizziness, and dependency.

69
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What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of SSRIs in treating anxiety?

SSRIs increase serotonin levels by inhibiting its reuptake in the brain.

70
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What are common side effects of SSRIs?

Nausea, insomnia, and sexual dysfunction.

71
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What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of SNRIs?

SNRIs increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels by inhibiting their reuptake.

72
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What are common side effects of SNRIs?

Increased blood pressure, headache, and nausea.

73
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What is the difference between benzodiazepines and buspirone in treating anxiety?

Benzodiazepines act quickly for acute anxiety, while buspirone is for long-term management without dependency risk.

74
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What are common side effects of buspirone?

Dizziness, headache, and nausea.

75
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What is the primary treatment for severe alcohol withdrawal?

Benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam or diazepam, to prevent seizures and delirium.

76
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What is the role of propranolol in treating PTSD symptoms?

Propranolol helps reduce hyperarousal and anxiety in PTSD by blocking adrenaline effects.

77
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What are common side effects of propranolol?

Fatigue, low blood pressure, and dizziness.

78
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What is prazosin used for in PTSD treatment?

Prazosin reduces nightmares and sleep disturbances in PTSD.

79
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What are common side effects of prazosin?

Dizziness, headaches, and low blood pressure.

80
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What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of phenobarbital in treating alcohol withdrawal?

Phenobarbital enhances GABA activity, reducing seizure risk during alcohol withdrawal.

81
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What are common side effects of phenobarbital?

Drowsiness, respiratory depression, and sedation.

82
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What is the purpose of grounding techniques in PTSD treatment?

Grounding techniques help keep patients in the present moment and reduce dissociative symptoms.

83
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What are examples of grounding techniques used for dissociative disorders?

Stomping feet, holding ice cubes, and focusing on familiar objects.

84
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What are common non-pharmacological treatments for PTSD?

Cognitive-behavioral therapy, exposure therapy, and mindfulness techniques.

85
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What are the goals of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in anxiety disorders?

CBT helps patients identify negative thoughts and replace them with realistic, positive thoughts.

86
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What are the common symptoms of alcohol intoxication?

Slurred speech, lack of coordination, and impaired judgment.

87
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What are the short-term effects of inhalant use?

Euphoria, dizziness, slurred speech, and hallucinations.

88
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What are long-term effects of inhalant use?

Brain damage, hearing loss, and liver or kidney damage.

89
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What is the most effective way to prevent substance abuse relapse?

Combining pharmacological treatment with counseling and support groups like Alcoholics Anonymous (AA).

90
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What is derealization in dissociative disorders?

Derealization involves a feeling that the external world is unreal or distorted.

91
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What is dissociative fugue?

Dissociative fugue involves sudden, unexpected travel away from home with an inability to recall one's past.

92
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What is the primary focus of treatment for dissociative amnesia?

The focus is to help patients recover lost memories and develop coping strategies.

93
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What neurotransmitter is primarily involved in anxiety disorders?

Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid (GABA) helps regulate anxiety by inhibiting neural activity.

94
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What is a maturational crisis?

A crisis triggered by reaching a new stage of development, such as adolescence or retirement.

95
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What is an adventitious crisis?

A crisis caused by an unplanned, accidental event such as a natural disaster or violent crime.

96
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What is the primary goal during the acute phase of a crisis?

To restore the individual to their pre-crisis level of functioning.

97
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What is systematic desensitization in behavioral therapy?

It involves gradual exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli while using relaxation techniques.

98
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What is the DSM-5 criteria for diagnosing PTSD?

Exposure to trauma, intrusive symptoms, avoidance, negative mood, and increased arousal lasting more than one month.

99
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What is the role of beta-blockers in anxiety management?

Beta-blockers, like propranolol, reduce physical symptoms of anxiety such as rapid heartbeat.

100
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What are the common signs of opioid intoxication?

Pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, and slowed breathing.