SET 2 VOLUME 4 CDCS

a. central

What part of the nervous system includes the brain and the spinal cord?

a. central

b. peripheral

c. sympathetic

d. parasympathetic

a. dendrite

What type of nerve conducts impulses from the brain to the cell body?

a. dendrite

b. axon

c. myelin

d. neurilemma

b. cerebrum

What is the largest part of the brain?

a. cerebellum

b. cerebrum

c. medulla oblangata

d. pons

c. cerebral cortex

What part of the brain controls voluntary actions?

a. brain stem

b. cerebellum

c. cerebral cortex

d. frontal lobe

b. hypothalamus

What part of the brain aids in controlling body temperature, water balance, sleep, and appetite?

a. thalamus

b. hypothalamus

c. midbrain

d. pons

d. medulla oblongata

Which part of the brain contains the centers to regulate respiration, cardiac activity, and vasomotor response?

a. pons

b. cerebellum

c. cerebral cortex

d. medulla oblongata

d. 31

How many pairs of nerves branch off of the spinal cord?

a. 28

b. 29

c. 30

d. 31

a. somatic

Which portion of the peripheral nervous system controls all of our conscious awareness of the external environment and motor activity?

a. somatic

b. autonomic

c. sympathetic

d. parasympathetic

b. bronchial tube constriction

Which effect can be attributed to the parasympathetic nervous system?

a. pupil dilation

b. bronchial tube constriction

c. blood pressure increase

d. peristalsis suppression

c. multiple sclerosis

What spinal cord disorder involves the disappearance of myelin causing the nerve axons to degenerate?

a. poliomyelitis

b. paraplegia

c. multiple sclerosis

d. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

d. hydrocephalus

What brain disorder is caused by an obstruction of the flow of cerebrospinal fluid?

a. meningitis

b. subdural hematoma

c. trigeminal neuralgia

d. hydrocephalus

b. manic-depressive illness

What term is interchangeable with bipolar disorder?

a. schizophrenia

b. manic-depressive illness

c. anxiety

d. chronic depression

b. mania

A decreased need for sleep, uncharacteristically poor judgement, and an unrealistic belief in one's abilities and power are symptoms of which psychotic disorder?

a. schizophrenia

b. mania

c. anxiety

d. depression

a. selegiline

Early treatment with what drug slows the progression of Parkinson's disease?

a. selegiline

b. carbidopa

c. ethambutol

d. levodopa

b. dopamine

What neurotransmitter has recently been discovered to be deficient in adults diagnosed with ADHD?

a. serotonin

b. dopamine

c. norepinephrine

d. acetylcholine

c. gamma-aminobutyrate

To what neurotransmitter's receptor sites do benzodiazepines bind?

a. serotonin

b. dopamine

c. gamma-aminobutyrate

d. norepinephrine

d. fluoxetine

Which medication increases the effects of benzodiazepines?

a. fexofenadine

b. carbemazepine

c. imipramine

d. fluoxetine

c. hypertensive crisis

What interaction occurs when tricyclic antidepressants are given concomitantly with clonidine?

a. respiratory depression

b. increased toxic effects of clonidine

c. hypertensive crisis

d. extreme anticholinergic symptoms

d. lithium

Which antidepressant drug alters sodium transport in nerve and muscle cells and may reduce concentration of catecholamine neurotransmitters?

a. diazepam

b. hydroxyzine

c. fluoxetine

d. lithium

a. arrhythmia

What adverse reaction may occur when trazodone is used in patients recovering from myocardial infarction?

a. arrhythmia

b. hypotension

c. edema

d. tachycardia

b. temazepam

Which benzodiazepine is used strictly for sleep?

a. diazepam

b. temazepam

c. lorazepam

d. alprazolam

c. X

Into which pregnancy category does temazepam fall?

a. A

b. B

c. X

d. D

c. brainstem

In what part of the brain do benzodiazepines exert their anticonvulsant activity?

a. midbrain

b. cerebral cortex

c. brainstem

d. motor cortex

b. tricyclic

To which class of antidepressant is carbamazepine related?

a. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

b. tricyclic

c. monoamine oxidase inhibitors

d. lithium

a. low potency drugs tend to be more sedating

What is the relationship between antipsychotic drug potency and side effects?

a. low potency drugs tend to be more sedating

b. low potency drugs tend to have more non-CNS effects

c. high potency drugs tend to be more sedating

d. high potency drugs have less non-CNS effects

d. haloperidol

What antipsychotic is indicated for treatment of Tourette's syndrome?

a. chlrpromazine

b. risperidone

c. thioridazine

d. haloperidol

d. acetylcholine

Diphenhydramine and meclizine produce their anti-emetic effects by inhibiting what neurotransmitter?

a. dopamine

b. norepinephrine

c. serotonin

d. acetylcholine

a. it may lower the seizure threshold

How does methylphenidate affect patients with a history of seizure disorder?

a. it may lower the seizure threshold

b. it may raise the seizure threshold

c. CNS stimulant activity is increased

d. CNS stimulant activity is decreased

c. tricyclic antidepressants

Which class of medications may decrease the effectiveness of dextroamphetamine?

a. antihistamines

b. antineoplastics

c. tricyclic antidepressants

d. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

b. epiglottis

What structure keeps food from entering the respiratory tract?

a. glottis

b. epiglottis

c. pharynx

d. larynx

c. alveoli

What is the name of the cluster of air sacs at the end of the bronchial tree?

a. epithelium

b. bronchioles

c. alveoli

d. pleura

a. diffusion

Through what process is oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged in the lungs?

a. diffusion

b. dilution

c. dissolution

d. decarboxylization

d. carbon dioxide

Chemoreceptors that control respiration are sensitive to what compound?

a. oxygen

b. nitrous oxide

c. carbon monoxide

d. carbon dioxide

d. deviated

What term is used to describe a septum which is markedly to one side?

a. alveolar

b. polyp

c. off-centered

d. deviated

c. injury

What is the most common cause of nosebleed?

a. high blood pressure

b. polyps

c. injury

d. ulceration

b. mast cells and eosinophils

Which two types of cells are the essential effector cells of the inflammatory response in asthma?

a. mast cells and leukotrienes

b. mast cells and eosinophils

c. eosinophils and leukotrienes

d. eosinophils and histamines

c. emphysema

Which lower respiratory disease is characterized by abnormal permanent enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole, along with destruction of the alveolar walls?

a. chronic bronchitis

b. asthma

c. emphysema

d. chronic obstructive airway disease

b. salmeterol

Which bronchodilator is not used to relieve acute asthma symptoms?

a. terbutaline

b. salmeterol

c. ephedrine

d. isoproteranol

d. theophylline is excreted into breast milk and may cause irritability in nursing infants

What caution should be given to nursing mothers concerning theophylline use?

a. theophylline is safe and not excreted into breast milk

b. theophylline is excreted into breast milk and is unsafe, discontinue nursing

c. theophylline is excreted into breast milk with no effects on the nursing infant

d. theophylline is excreted into breast milk and may cause irritability in nursing infants

a. corticosteroids benefit only 10% of COAD patients

Which statement is true concerning inhaled corticosteroids and chronic obstructive airway disease (COAD)?

a. corticosteroids benefit only 10% of COAD patients

b. corticosteroids are the drug of choice in treating COAD

c. corticosteroids have no affect on COAD

d. corticosteroid use exacerbates COAD

b. the disease may reappear more severely

What reaction may occur in a patient who has been taking systemically administered corticosteroids for longer than 7-10 days abruptly discontinues the medication?

a. nothing, abrupt discontinuance is normal

b. the disease may reappear more severely

c. acute anaphylactic shock may occur

d. the patient will continue to improve as the corticosteroids linger in their system

b. they require contact with mucosa to work

Why are mast cell stabilizers only used by inhalation?

a. gastric enzymes destroy the active agent

b. they require contact with mucosa to work

c. the half-life is too short to be stable through the intestine

d. they irritate the esophagus too much to be taken orally

c. they have no effects on acute attacks

Which statement is correct concerning leukotriene inhibitors and acute asthma attacks?

a. they effectively treat acute attacks

b. they exacerbate acute attacks

c. they have no effects on acute attacks

d. they have only minor effects on acute attacks

a. vasoconstriction

What action occurs when decongestants come into contact with mucosa?

a. vasoconstriction

b. drying

c. vasodilation

d. increased secretions

c. release in the mouth may produce local anesthesia

Why must benzonatate capsules be swallowed whole?

a. the enteric capsule is meant to be dissolved in the intestine

b. capsule contents may irritate the esophagus

c. release in the mouth may produce local anesthesia

d. the medication is only absorbed through gastric mucosa

c. internal

Which section of the ear contains the receptors for hearing and equilibrium?

a. external

b. middle

c. internal

d. medial

a. olfactory epithelium

Where are the receptors for smell located?

a. olfactory epithelium

b. olfactory nerves

c. olfactory center of the brain

d. olfactory epidermis

b. trachoma

What type of eye infection is referred to as granular conjunctivitis?

a. choroid infections

b. trachoma

c. pink eye

d. ophthalmia neonatorium

d. cataracts

Which eye disorder can be directly attributed to diabetes?

a. glaucoma

b. conjunctivitis

c. retinal detachment

d. cataracts

d. decreased production and increased outflow

How does dipivefrin decrease intraocular pressure?

a. increased aqueous production and decreased outflow

b. decreased aqueous production and decreased outflow

c. increased aqueous production and increased outflow

d. decreased production and increased outflow