T-44C systems

T-44C Length, height, wingspan

35ft 6in, 14ft 2.6in, 50ft 2.9 in

Max crosswind component

20 kts

All landings must be________ with a maximum sink rate of_______

flared, 600fpm

The pilot's and copilot's shoulder harnesses______

a. will lock if 2-3 G's are pulled

b. will lock with a 2-3G acceleration

c. will lock with a 2-3G deceleration

d. Can be manually locked by using the manual lock handle

C. will lock with a 2-3G deceleration

After experiencing an engine failure after takeoff you adjust the nose attitude of the T-44C to maintain the Vyse speed of______

110 KIAS

The maximum ramp weight is_____ takeoff weight is _____ and the maximum landing weight is____

9710lbs, 9650lbs, 9168lbs

Vmo is ____ KIAS below _____ft MSL. It decreases ____ KIAS for every 1000ft above that altitude.

227KIAS, 15,500ft, 4KIAS

To carry passengers, the minimum crew is a(n)____ and a(n)____.

Aircraft Commander, Student Naval Aviator

In the T-44C, ______

a. a relief tube and non-flushing lavatory (toilet) are located aft of the main entrance

b. an audio control panel allows the observer to handle all communications

c. the alternate static air inlet is located within the pressurized cabin

d. non-flared landings are allowed but not to exceed 600fpm rate of descent

A. a relief tube and non-flushing lavatory (toilet) are located aft of the main entrance

It is an acceptable practice to tow the aircraft with the control lock installed in the rudder pedals (True/False)

False

In the T-44C, _____

A. maximum engine acceleration torque of 2500ft-lbs for 2 seconds

B. the total fuel system capacity is 387.6 US Gallons, of which 384 Gallons are useble

C. the starters are limited to an operating period of 45 seconds on, 2 minutes off, for two cycles

D. it is good practice to take off and land with the propeller synchrophaser on/engaged

B. the total fuel system capacity is 387.6 US Gallons, of which 384 Gallons are useble

If the engine compressor progressive bleed valve fails to close completely ___.

You may not be able to obtain takeoff power

You may have to advance the power lever further forward that normal for cruise power

The engine operating condition labeled MAX CONTINUOUS is used for_____

emergency use at the discretion of the pilot

NATOPS start procedures state the maximum ITT on start is _____ but you will have to move the condition lever to FUEL CUTOFF if the ITT appears likely to exceed_____

1090 C, 925 C

Compressor stalls at low N1 speeds are prevented by the_____

A. compressor progressive bleed valve

B. electrically controlled bleed air valve

C. flow control valve

D. Flux Capacitor (yes this was really on the test)

A. Compressor progressive bleed valve

The maximum torque allowed for takeoff, on a standard day at sea level is _____

1315 ft-lbs at 2200RPM

1520 ft-lbs at 1900RPM

Each engine's oil system has a total capacity of ______, of which _____ in the oil tank can be measured by the oil dipstick

14 Quarts, 5 Quarts measurable

In Albuquerque, NM (field elevation is 5355ft MSL) on an August afternoon (40C) your takeoff will be

A. be torque limited at 1315ft-lb on takeoff and ITT limited at 790F in the climb

B. be ITT limited at 790C for 5 minutes on takeoff and 765C in the climb

C. allow you to keep ITT at 790C for the normal takeoff and climb to cruising altitude, due to high density altitude

D. Activate the torque limiter due to the high density altitude

B. be ITT limited at 790C for 5 minutes on takeoff and 765C in the climb

The ITT gauges are calibrated in degrees Celsius and sense the hot gases_____

A. In the exhause stacks

B. in the combustion chamber prior to the N1 compressor turbine

C. between the axial and centrifugal turbines

D. between the N1 and N2 turbines

D. between the N1 and N2 turbines

The power levers adjust the N1 speed governor in the fuel control unit and ______

A. are used to start or stop the flow of fuel to the engine

B. adjust the flight idle speed of the engine between approximately 51-73% N1

C. are connected to the start control unit

D. control reverse propeller pitch and engine power when the aircraft is on deck

D. control reverse propeller pitch and engine power when the aircraft is on deck

According to the NATOPS engine starting procedures, a start should be aborted if the ITT is likely to exceed______ or if there is no light off within ______ seconds of placing the condition lever to low idle

925C, 10 seconds

Select the TRUE statement

A. The T-44C fire detector system detects infrared radiation

B. The fire extinguisher agent consists of two pounds of carbon dioxide

C. The fire extinguisher squib cannot be fired unless the battery is in the ON position.

D. The fire detector system will operate with the battery and generators in the OFF position

A. The T-44C fire detector system detects infrared radiation

The oil cooler uses a thermal bypass valve to keep the oil at a normal temperature of_____

10 to 99 C

Choose the INCORRECT statement

A. Windshield wipers should only be operated on wet glass

B. The pilot, copilot, and observer all have demand type oxygen masks

C. The mechanically-activated ice vanes decrease aircraft range when used

D. Fuel control heat warms the fuel just prior to the fuel control unit

D. Fuel control heat warms the fuel just prior to the fuel control unit

Engine oil_____ and the oil TANK contains _____ of oil

A. cools and lubricates the engine, 9 gallons

B. operates the prop pitch change mechanisms and torquemeter system, 9 quarts

C. cools and luburicates the engine, 14 quarts

D. Operates the prop pitch change mechanism and torquemeter system, 14 quarts

B. operates the prop pitch change mechanisms and torquemeter system, 9 quarts

In the Seagull operating area, you are initiating the recovery from a power-off clean stall. While setting the maximum power you notice that the left engine is only producing 300 ft-lbs of torque, but shows normally increasing N1, ITT, and fuel flow. This is probably due to_____

A. a right compressor progressive bleed valve stuck closed

B. a left compressor progressive bleed valve stuck open

C. a left compressor progressive bleed valve stuck closed

D. a right compressor progressive bleed valve stuck open

B. a left compressor progressive bleed valve stuck open

Power lever movement in the flight (alpha) range controls _____. Power lever movement in the beta range controls _____.

N1, prop pitch (blade angle)

In El Paso, TX (field elevation 3962ft) on a hot summer day (110 deg F, 45 deg C) on your cross-country, you will probably _______ as you advance the power levers for takeoff.

A. reach the ITT limit of 790 C before the torque limit

B. activate the torque limiter due to the high density altitude

C. reach the torque limit of 1315 ft-lb before the ITT limit

D. reach the ITT limit of 790 Deg F before the torque limit

A. reach the ITT limit of 790 C before the torque limit

Extending the engine ice protection vanes in flight will_______.

A. Cause a slight decrease in torque and slight increase in ITT

B. not affect fuel range

C. be automatic if the engine lip boot heat is turned on

D. bypass the dual oil interface

A. Cause a slight decrease in torque and slight increase in ITT

The power lever is directly connected to the Starter Control Unit (True/False)

FALSE

The power turbine is directly connected to the reduction gear box, which turns the propeller (True/False)

TRUE

The propeller blades are driven to higher pitch angles by the action of _____, such as when you_____

A. oil pressure, set 2200RPM just prior to landing

B. oil pressure, set 1900RPM after takeoff

C. Feather springs and blade shank counter weights, set 1900RPM after takeoff

D. return springs and counterweights, set 2200RPM just prior to landing

C. Feather springs and blade shank counter weights, set 1900RPM after takeoff

Power lever movement from the beginning of the reverse range to full reverse will control the prop pitch from _____ degrees and will also _____

-5 to -11 degrees

Increase N1 RPM

The Yellow PROP REV NOT READY light will illuminate if_____

A. the gear handle is down and condition levers are not high idle

B. the gear handle is down and the power levers are aft of the idle position

C. the gear handle is up and the prop levers are not full forward

D. the gear handle is down and the prop levers are not full forward

D. the gear handle is down and the prop levers are not full forward

After securing the right engine due to a physically jammed power lever (jammed mid-range, 650ft-lbs) you notice that the right prop failed to feather. The alternate prop feathering procedure in NATOPS will be successful in feathering the prop (True/False)

TRUE

While flying you observe the left propeller RPM increase to 2200RPM and the left prop lever will not reduce the left propeller RPM. The problem must be a _____

Propeller Linkage Failure

You have the auto feather switch in the armed position and both green AUTOFEATHER ARMED lights are illuminated. Your instructor retards the right power lever to the idle position to simulate and engine failure. This will cause ______

A. the left AUTOFEATHER ARMED light to flash

B. the right AUTOFEATHER ARMED light to extinguish and the right prop to feather

C. only the right AUTOFEATHER ARMED light to extinguish

D. Deactivation of the autofeather system

D. Deactivation of the autofeather system

Reduction gearbox and/or engine power turbine damage will occur with propeller speeds in excess of _____ RPM

2420 RPM

The prop blades are driven to lower blade angles by the action of _____

Oil Pressure

During flight, the prop RPM increases to 2288 and cannot be reduced. This indicates a failure of the ______

Primary governor

Both AUTOFEATHER ARMED lights were illuminated on the takeoff roll, but as you give the PM a thumbs up to raise the landing gear, you accidentally knock the left power lever to idle and the left torque drops to 200 ft-lbs. This will result in _____

Extinguishing of both AUTOFEATHER ARMED lights but no prop feathering

The PROP GOVERNOR TEST switch enables testing of the _____

Overspeed Governor

While cruising at 5000ft, the right engine flames out due to a failure of the engine driven high pressure fuel pump. The autofeather system is not armed. The right propeller______

A. will feather as soon as N1 drops below 25%

B. will only feather if the prop lever is brought to the feather position

C. will eventually feather with no action taken by the aircrew

D. will feather as soon as torque drops to 410 ft-lbs

B. will only feather if the prop lever is brought to the feather position

If the right boost pump circuit breaker pops in flight, you will notice ____

A. Perhaps an audible pop, but no annunciator light because it is dual powered

B. RH FUEL PRESSURE light illuminating momentarily

C. a FUEL CROSSFEED light

D. a flashing fault warning light

E. B, C, and D

A. Perhaps an audible pop, but no annunciator light because it is dual powered

In flight, the left transfer pump circuit breaker has popped and will not reset. This means_____

A. the crossfeed system will have to be used to make use of all the fuel

B. the left transfer pump will have to be used in override mode

C. the LH NO FUEL TRANSFER light will illuminate after 30 seconds

D. the left transfer pump is inoperative and up to 28 gallons of fuel on that side is unusable

D. the left transfer pump is inoperative and up to 28 gallons of fuel on that side is unusable

While performing a turn pattern in the Seagull area, the yellow FUEL CROSSFEED light illuminates and a fault warning light is flashing. This indicates a _____

A. failure of the crossfeed valve

B. failure of a boost pump and an engine is in suction lift mode

C. failure of a transfer pump

D. failure of a boost pump and the crossfeed valve can be closed to identify the failed boost pump

D. failure of a boost pump and the crossfeed valve can be closed to identify the failed boost pump

Two hours into your cross-country flight to Las Vegas you do a check of the fuel quantity and see 600lbs total/300lbs nacelle left side, 600lbs total/200lbs nacelle right side. No annunciator lights are illuminated and all fuel switches and circuit breakers are in there normal positions. This could mean_____

A. Nothing, this could be normal.

B. the right transfer pump has failed

C. the right nacelle low level (42 gallon) float switch has failed but transfer override should regain fuel transfer

D. the right nacelle low level (42 gallon) fload switch has failed but transfer override should not be used

C. the right nacelle low level (42 gallon) float switch has failed but transfer override should regain fuel transfer

The "good news" about using suction lift (as opposed to crossfeeding) in the event of a boost pump failure is _____, while the "bad news" is _____

A. the high pressure pump should have at least 10hrs on it, so there is no bad news

B. I have regained use of all of the fuel, I could lose power and eventually flame out that engine in a rapid climb above 13,000ft

C. I have normal range remaining, I must open the crossfeed valve while cruising

D. gravity feed will kick in when the nacelle tank falls below 3/8 full, the transfer pump must be operated in override mode

B. I have regained use of all of the fuel, I could lose power and eventually flame out that engine in a rapid climb above 13,000ft

You are in cruise flight w/ 650 ft-lbs of torque set on both engines, both boost pump switches on, andthe crossfeed in AUTO. The left boost pump circuit breaker pops, with no other malfunctions. What lights would be illuminated on the annunciator panel?

A. A flashing fault warning and a red "LH FUEL PRESSURE" warning light

B. A flashing fault warning and a yellow FUEL CROSSFEED light

C. a flashing fault warning and a red LH FUEL NO TRANSFER light

D. No flashing fault warning because the boost pumps are dual powered. Only the left and right green AUTOIGNITION ARMED lights would be illuminated

D. No flashing fault warning because the boost pumps are dual powered. Only the left and right green AUTOIGNITION ARMED lights would be illuminated

To extend your range while single engine, crossfeeding requires the crossfeed valve open _______

A. and the feeding side boost pump on, receiving side boost pump off

B. and the feeding side boost pump off, receiving side boost pump on

C. and the feeding side boost pump on, receiving side boost pump on

D. and the feeding side boost pump off, receiving side boost pump off

A. and the feeding side boost pump on, receiving side boost pump off

A red "RH NO FUEL TRANSFER" light has been illuminated. The total fuel quantity on the right side is 300lbs and the right nacelle quantity is 300lbs. Select the correct statement

A. All of the right wing fuel has been transferred to the right nacelle tank

B. The right 42 Gal float switch has failed

C. the right transfer pump has failed

D. the right transfer pump circuit breaker has popped

A. All of the right wing fuel has been transferred to the right nacelle tank

Engine operation with the RH FUEL PRESSURE light illuminated (suction lift) is time-limited to ____ hours before the engine driven fuel pump must be overhauled

10 Hours before overhaul

During flight, the right transfer pump circuit breaker pops and cannot be reset. Select the correct statement

A. the RH transfer pump is inoperative, up to 28 gallons of fuel are no longer usable, and you will not see the RH NO FUEL TRANSFER annunciator light

B. the RH transfer pump is inoperative in the override position

C. the RH NO FUEL TRANSFER light will illuminate after 30 seconds

D. the right boost pump can be used to suction lift the fuel from the right wing tanks

A. the RH transfer pump is inoperative, up to 28 gallons of fuel are no longer usable, and you will not see the RH NO FUEL TRANSFER annunciator light

When operating in suction lift, a rapid climb out will result in ____ on the affected engine beginning at approximately 13,000 ft

A. Immediate flame out

B. up to 28 gallons of fuel being trapped in the wing

C. a fuel transfer failure

D. a gradual power loss, followed by a complete power loss if the climb is continued

D. a gradual power loss, followed by a complete power loss if the climb is continued

Loss of the Number 2 fuel bus (such as a popped right fuel panel/bus circuit breaker) would cause ______

A. The RH NO FUEL TRANSFER light to illuminate

B. the right fuel gauge to read zero and result in the loss of the right transfer pump

C. up to 28 gallons of fuel being trapped in the wing

D. B and C are correct

D. B and C are correct

In flight you shut down the left engine due to a chip light. You then decide to use single-engine crossfeed from the left engine to maximize your range. The _____

A. Right engine's boost pump is off and the crossfeed is open

B. Right engine's boost pump is on and the crossfeed is open

C. left engine's boost pump is on and the crossfeed is closed

D. left engine's bost pump is off and the crossfeed is open

E. left wing's fuel is unusable because the left firewall valve is closed

A. Right engine's boost pump is off and the crossfeed is open

The elevator trim tab is an anti-servo tab, which means it moves in the same direction as the elevator, this increasing the effective control surface area (True/False)

TRUE

You were using considerable left nosewheel steering/rudder to counter a crosswind on the takeoff roll. As you rotate, become airborne and raise the gear ____

The nosewheel will be automatically centered and nosewheel steering will be disengaged

Both ailerons have neutral trim tabs, which means that once they are set they do not move with corresponding aileron movement (True/False)

FALSE

Only the left aileron has a trim tab

The parking brake ______

A. Can only be set with the right seat brake pedals

B. Can be set with either right or left seat pedals

C. does not require any brake pressure be applied to set the parking brake, after pulling the handle out

D. can only be set with the left seat brake pedals

D. can only be set with the left seat brake pedals

When nosewheel steering is augemented by main wheel braking, the nose wheel can be deflected up to _____ degrees left or right of center

48 degrees

The nose gear indicates unsafe down with the gear handle in the down position, the power levers at the 85% N1 position, and the flaps up. The Wheels Up warning system ________

A. will activate if the engine flames out and the power lever of the failed engine is retarded below the 79% N1 position

B. will activate immediately

C. is disabled because one or more gear is down and locked

D. will activate if both power levers are retarded below the 79% N1 position

D. will activate if both power levers are retarded below the 79% N1 position

Which system is not affected by a landing gear squat switch?

A. Pitot Heat

B. Pressurization

C. Landing Gear Circuits

D. Engine Inlet Lip Boot

A. Pitot Heat

When actuating the landing gear, coasting and over-travel are prevented by _______ and dynamic braking action

Limit switches

With the landing gear handle selected down, the switch that can be used to troubleshoot an unsafe right main landing gear is the ______ switch, which indicates the right main gear position via the _____ switch.

A. Prop Sync, Limit

B. Electric Heat, Right Main Uplock

C. Prop Sync, Right Main Uplock

D. Prop Sync, Right Main Downlock

C. Prop Sync, Right Main Uplock

The flight hour meter is automatically activated when airborne via the _____

right squat switch

When required to make a gear-up landing....

A. normal braking is not possible due to the squat switches being inoperative

B. normal braking is possible, but the tires will not be in contact with the runway

C. normal braking is possible from the pilot and copilot's side, and the tires will be in contact with the runway

D. normal braking is only possible from the pilot's side

C. normal braking is possible from the pilot and copilot's side, and the tires will be in contact with the runway

With the landing gear handle down, in order to troubleshoot an unsafe left main landing gear you would______

A. turn on the landing lights and observe a generator load increase

B. turn on the prop sync and look for the PROP SYNC ON annunciator light

C. turn on the electric heat to "GRND MAX" and observe a generator load increase

D. Turn on the left engine lip boot heat and observe a generator load increase

C. turn on the electric heat to "GRND MAX" and observe a generator load increase

The landing gear WARNING HORN SILENCE button will work______

A. If the flaps are up or at the approach position

B. if the flaps are up

C. if the power levers are below the 79% N1 position in any flap position

D. if the flaps are down and the power levers are above the 79% N1 position

B. if the flaps are up

Putting the CABIN PRESS CONTROL switch to the DUMP position could be done ___ and would ___.

A. to test the pressurization system before takeoff, close the safety valve

B. to troubleshoot an unsafe right main landing gear after selecting the gear handle down, help determine if the right main gear has dropped from its uplock switch

C. for smoke and fume elimination, open the safety valve and the ram air door to allow airflow through the cabin

D. for fire of unknown origin, open the outflow valve to allow cabin clearing

C. for smoke and fume elimination, open the safety valve and the ram air door to allow airflow through the cabin

You are on a cross country flight from Galliano, Louisiana to Denver, Colorado. During the Before Takeoff Checklist you see the pressurization controller correctly for your departure airport. However, during the Approach Checklist you forgot to set the pressurization controller for your destination airport. Assuming the altimeter setting is the same for both, and your aircraft is pressurized correctly, what is your cabin altitude reading on short final into Denver?

500ft

Which is not a function of the safety valve?

A. Negative Pressure Relief

B. 4.7 PSID relief

C. Dumping pressure on touchdown

D. Negative pressure and 4.9PSID relief

B. 4.7 PSID relief

With the CABIN TEMP MODE switch in MAN COOL position, rorating the CABIN TEMP control knob to the full decrease position will ____

A. have no effect on the heat exchanger bypass valve position

B. ensure maximum cooling of the cabin

C. reset the MANUAL TEMP control to full decrease

D. disable the electric windshield heat

A. have no effect on the heat exchanger bypass valve position

The pressurization system outflow and safety valves share whic function in common?

A. Negative pressure relief so that atmospheric pressure does not exceed cabin pressure

B. Negative pressure relief so that cabin pressure does not exceed atmospheric pressure

C. Cabin climb and descent rate control

D. Cabin altitude control

A. Negative pressure relief so that atmospheric pressure does not exceed cabin pressure

The pneumatic system provides suction (vacuum) which can be used to ____

A. provide air data computer information

B. deflate the cabin door seal

C. provide vacuum to close the safety valve

D. operate the rate gyro for the turn needle

D. operate the rate gyro for the turn needle

After securing the gang bar, following execution of the Smoke/Fire of Unknown Origin procedure, which digital engine instruments will be operative?

None

The T-44C has a starter-generator located on each engine

A. That provides 28VDC with a rated output of 250 amps

B. between the axial and centrifugal compressor

C. off the N2 reduction gear box

D. that provides 24VDC with a rated output of 42 amps

A. That provides 28VDC with a rated output of 250 amps

The auxiliary battery is located in the avionics bay and provides _____ power to the Avionics Essential Bus for approximately 30 minutes when DC power is lost (main batt + generators)

24 VDC

Which is NOT a function of the generator control box?

A. Automatic Paralleling

B. Reverse Current Protection

C. Voltage regulation at 24.85 +/- 0.8VDC

D. Undervoltage protection

C. Voltage regulation at 24.85 +/- 0.8VDC

(its actually 28.25 +/- 0.8VDC)

The engine fire extinguishers are activated by power from the _____ Bus

Hot Battery Bus

After shutting down the left engine you observe the battery ammeter indicating a 50 amp discharge (no other failures observed). This would indicate________

A. A Failure of the right current limiter

B. normal operation because the left generator control box failed when the engine shut down

C. a failure of the left current limiter

D. both current limiters are working

A. A failure of the right current limiter

Which of the following DC busses are always powered when the main battery is connected

A. the left main bus

B. the right main bus

C. the battery bus

D. the hot battery bus

D. the hot battery bus

If the right current limiter fails, but both generators are operable and on-line, what electrical equipment would be lost?

A. Right main bus, No2&3 Avionics busses, and No2 Fuel bus

B. The No1&2 Subpanel busses

C. Baggage door light and Right Fuel Pressure Light

D. No equipment would be lost, but the generators would not be able to operate in parallel and may show an ammeter split

D. No equipment would be lost, but the generators would not be able to operate in parallel and may show an ammeter split

Select the INCORRECT statement

A. The left No.2 subpanel (feeder) circuit breaker may be reset once in flight

B. Essential Circuit Breakers may be reset once

C. Nonessential circuit breakers may not be reset in flight

D. The surface De-Ice circuit breaker may be pulled then reset in flight

A. The left No.2 subpanel (feeder) circuit breaker may be reset once in flight

After levelling off at 20,000ft, you do the cruise checklist and notice the right fuel quantity gauge reading zero in the total and nacelle positions. There are no annunciator lights illuminated. A possible cause is_____

A. a current limiter failure

B. a generator failure

C. a transfer pump failure

D. the No.2 fuel (panel) bus circuit breaker has popped

D. the No.2 fuel (panel) bus circuit breaker has popped

During the preflight inspection, you notice the main battery voltage is reading 21 volts. You should______

A. Call for an APU to start the right engine

B. Call for an APU to start the left engine

C. perform a battery start of the right and left engines

D. performa a battery start of the left engine then an APU start of the right engine

B. call for an APU to start the left engine

If the right current limiter fails in flight, with no other malfunctions, the aircrew would notice______

A. The right fuel quantity gauge would read zero

B. the battery would show a possible discharge

C. possibly nothing, possibly a load-meter split greater than 0.1

D. a failure of the co-pilots flight director

C. possibly nothing, possibly a load-meter split greater than 0.1

The right generator is failing internally and the output voltage is dropping. The unit that senses this under-voltage and disconnects the generator from the ______ bus is called the _______

A. Right Main, generator control box

B. battery, generator control box

C. Right main, DC-to-DC converter

D. Left main, paralleling circuit

Right main Bus, generator control box

You and the copilot have acted quickly to reduce electrical loads following a dual generator failure. The battery is assumed to be fully charged and the battery ammeter is showing a 40 amp discharge. The battery should last approximately______ minutes

60 minutes

During preflight inspection, you notice the battery voltage is reading 19 volts. Your best course of action is to_______

Call for an APU to charge the battery

In the unlikely event of a dual generator failure and a depleted main battery, the auxiliary battery can power______

CRANE for 5 amp hours

Com-1

RTU

Audio for pilot headset

Nav-1

ESIS

The RH GEN OUT light has illuminated. You notice that the copilots PFD has gone dark. The most likely reason for this is because ______, and you _______

A. The left current limter has failed, have lost the ability to discharge both fire extinguishers

B. The right current limiter has failed, have lost the ability to discharge the right fire extinguisher

C. the left current limiter has failed, need to reduce the load on the left generator

D. The right current limiter has failed, need to reduce the load on the left generator

D. The right current limiter has failed, need to reduce the load on the left generator

4 sources of DC power

1. 24 V 42 ampere battery

2. 28 V, 250 amp starter gen left

3. 28V, 250 amp starter gen right

4. 24V 5 amp aux batt

Gen control box overvoltage protection at

31V

gen control box undervoltage protection at

18V

Purpose of battery

1. emergency power

2. power for start

3. act as a damper by absorbing power surges

Items powered only by hot battery bus

RH+LH fire extinguishers, lights

Items dual powered by hot batt and fuel bus

Boost pumps, firewall valves, crossfeed valve

Current limiter _____ a slow blow fuse

325

Gen fail + opposite side current limiter

No initial equipment loss, battery discharging