TEST 1 - KEY (all questions and answers)

The process of completing the plan and engaging patients as active participants in their personalized care is...

implementation

The accurate recording of all assessment findings planned and delivered treatments, patient communication, treatment outcomes, and recommendations is:

documentation

Dental hygiene practice acts do all of the following except one. Which of the following is the exception?

A. Creates a board empowered with legal authority to oversee the policies and procedures.

B. Defines the legal scope of practice for dentists.

C. Establishes criteria for dental hygiene education, licensure, and relicensure.

D. Protects the public by making illegal the practice of dental hygiene by uncredentialed and unlicensed persons.

B. Defines the legal scope of practice for dentists.

Which federal law requires a patient's personal health information to be kept confidential?

HIPAA

Which method is not used for sterilizing contaminated instruments?

A. Chemical device.

B. Dry heat sterilizer.

C. Steam pressure sterilizer.

D. Ultrasonic instrument cleaning device

D. Ultrasonic instrument cleaning device.

Which is not a recommendation for fixtures and furnishings in a dental office?

A. Biohazard sharps container to collect contaminated needles.

B. Carpeting in the treatment areas.

C. Draperies in the reception area.

D. Emergency eye wash station.

B. Carpeting in the treatment area.

Which position is used for a patient who has experienced syncope?

trendelenburg

Which is not a recommended patient position?

A. The maxilla should be perpendicular to the floor when treating the maxillary arch.

B. The mandible should be perpendicular to the floor when treating the mandibular arch.

C. The patient should be in a chin down position when treating the mandibular arch.

D. The patient's mouth should be approximately level with the clinician's elbow.

C. The patient should be in a chin down position when treating the mandibular arch.

Which finger must have no pressure in the modified pen grasp?

middle

Which instrument handle is not recommended for long term use?

A. #2

B. #6

C. #8

D. #9

A. #2

Which is not an appointment management strategy to reduce the risk of RSIs?

A. Allow for "buffer time" in the daily schedule.

B. Alternate new patients with continued patients.

C. Schedule all difficult patients in the morning and easy patients in the afternoon.

D. Shorten continued-care intervals.

C. Schedule all difficult patients in the morning and easy patients in the afternoon.

Which syndrome is the result of compression of the median nerve located in the wrist?

carpal tunnel syndrome

Which syndrome is the result of repetitive use of fingers and hands (digital motion)?

trigger finger syndrome

Holding the little finger a full span away from the hand and fulcrum finger is a risk factor for which syndrome?

Guyon's canal

Caries that is a slow progressive decay process that requires intervention is termed:

chronic

What is the most common form of acquired tooth damage?

dental caries

What term describes the loss of tooth structure due to bruxism, grinding, or clenching?

attrition

Which is not a characteristic of rampant caries?

A. Associated with drug use.

B. Associated with reduced salivary flow.

C. Associated with head and neck radiation.

D. Associated with a limited number of teeth.

D. Associated with a limited number of teeth.

Which is not a recommended storage media for an avulsed tooth?

A. Hanks Balanced Salt Solution.

B. Milk.

C. Saline.

D. Tap water.

D. Tap water.

Which is not recommended management for an avulsed tooth?

A. Attempt to remove tissue fragments from the root.

B. Hold the tooth by the crown.

C. Rinse the tooth gently in cool water.

D. Reimplant as quickly as possible.

A. Attempt to remove tissue fragments from the root.

An occlusal classification in which the mandibular teeth are positioned lingual to the maxillary teeth is defined as:

normal

Biomechanical forces on teeth that results in a loss of structure at the CEJ is termed:

abfraction

What is the pH threshold for enamel demineralization?

A. 3.5

B. 5.5

C. 6.0

D. 6.5

B. 5.5

Which is not a characteristic of early childhood caries?

A. Begins along the cervical 1/3 of mandibular anterior teeth.

B. Begins along the cervical 1/3 of maxillary anterior teeth.

C. High levels of S. mutans.

D. Observed in children under the age of five.

A. Begins along the cervical 1/3 of mandibular anterior teeth.

Which is not a characteristic of root caries?

A. Leathery texture.

B. Occurs most frequently in the older adult population.

C. Spreads coronally.

D. Tends to be shallow.

C. Spreads coronally.

Which GV Black classification affects proximal surfaces in the posterior only?

class II

Which GV Black classification affects the pits and fissures in the anterior and posterior?

class I

Which is not an example of a cariogenic bacteria?

A. Lactobacillus.

B. P. gingivalis.

C. S. mutans.

D. S. sobrinus.

B. P. gingivalis

An extra tooth that occurs between the central incisors is known as:

mesiodens

Which permanent tooth is least likely to be congenitally missing?

A. First molar.

B. Mandibular premolar.

C. Maxillary lateral incisors.

D. Third molars.

A. First molar

Which anomaly will reduce the number of teeth found in one arch?

fusion

Which anomaly occurs when a single tooth germ attempts to form two teeth?

gemination

The term "shell teeth" is associated with which congenital abnormality?

dentinogenesis imperfecta

What term is used to describe "bull-like" teeth?

taurodontism

In normal centric occlusion, each tooth of one arch contact two teeth in the opposite arch except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Mandibular central incisors.

B. Mandibular lateral incisors.

C. Maxillary central incisors.

D. Maxillary second molars.

A. Mandibular central incisors.

Which is not an accurate description of overbite?

A. A normal overbite occurs when the incisal edge of maxillary incisors overlap mandibular incisors in the incisal 1/3.

B. A severe overbite occurs when the incisal edge of maxillary incisors overlap mandibular incisors in the cervical 1/3.

C. The maxillary incisors overlap the mandibular incisors horizontally.

D. The maxillary incisors overlap the mandibular incisors vertically.

C. The maxillary incisors overlap the mandibular incisors horizontally.

Which occlusal classification occurs when the MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occluded (more than the width of a premolar) distal to the MB groove of the mandibular first molar?

class III

Which is not a physical unit of a healthy periodontium (apparatus)?

A. Cementum.

B. Dentin.

C. Gingiva.

D. Periodontal ligament.

B. Dentin.

What fibrous connective tissue surrounds and attaches the tooth roots to the alveolar bone?

A. Circular fibers.

B. Junctional epithelium.

C. Periodontal ligament.

D. Sulcular epithelium.

C. Periodontal ligament

What is the probing depth of a healthy sulcus?

1 to 3 mm

Which is not a characteristic of healthy attached gingiva?

A. Exudes fluids.

B. Firm.

C. Resilient.

D. Stippled texture.

A. Exudes fluids

Which is not a characteristic of plaque-induced gingivitis?

A. Free gingival margin retractable with air.

B. Inflammation of the periodontal ligament.

C. Shiny surface texture.

D. Stippling of the free gingival margin.

B. Inflammation of the periodontal ligament.

Which is the most significant risk factor for periodontal disease?

tobacco use

Which is the definition of periodontitis?

apical migration of the junctional epithelium

Which is the definition of gingival recession?

apical migration of the gingival margin

Which gram-negative red complex bacteria is significant in periodontal destruction?

P. gingivalis

Which is not a characteristic or traumatic occlusal force?

A. Periodontal abscess.

B. Tooth pain when chewing or during percussion.

C. Wear facets.

D. Widening of the PDL on a radiograph

A. Periodontal abscess.

What is the first characteristic sign of gingivitis?

bleeding on probing (BOP)

Which is not a characteristic of a suprabony periodontal pocket?

A. Apical migration of the JE below the crest of the alveolar bone.

B. Apical migration of the JE but remains above the crest of the alveolar bone.

C. Bone loss is irreversible.

D. Described as horizontal bone loss.

A. Apical migration of the JE below the crest of the alveolar bone.

What should the clinician do next if an obstruction is encountered during periodontal probing?

attempt to angle the probe around the obstruction

Which is not a characteristic of a psudopocket?

A. Also known as a gingival pocket.

B. Gingival enlargement without tissue destruction.

C. Increased extracellular fluid.

D. Irreversible.

D. Irriversible

Which is the best measure for periodontal disease progression?

clinical attachment loss

What is the clinical attachment loss when the probing depth measures 4 mm with recession that measures 3 mm?

7 mm

Which describes a class IV furcation involvement?

through and through not covered by soft tissue, clinically open and exposed

If a tooth can be moved more than 1 mm in any direction but is not depressible, it is what class of mobility?

class II

Which is not an accurate statement regarding tobacco use and the effect on the periodontium?

A. Gingiva may not show obvious signs of inflammation.

B. Increased risk for severe loss for heavy smokers (more than 10 cigarettes/day).

C. Previous bone loss is reversible if the patient stops tobacco use.

D. Results in constriction of blood vessels.

C. Previous bone loss is reversible if the patient stops tobacco use.

An adult's periodontal examination reveals probing depths over 6 mm, furcation involvement, and mobility. What should the clinician do next?

refer for advanced periodontal therapy

Which is not recommended regarding documentation and record keeping?

A. Complete a full periodontal probing every 24 months.

B. Document the patient's response and compliance.

C. Document the patient's oral hygiene efforts, healing, and ongoing health status.

D. Record a patient's tardiness, cancellations, and missed appointments.

A. Complete a full periodontal probing every 24 months.

The portion of the shank that is from the last bend closest to the working end is the:

terminal shank

Which instrument design would be the best choice for use in a posterior periodontal pocket?

long shank with two lateral bends

Which instrument is not classified as an assessment instrument?

A. CH3 explorer.

B. Columbia 13/14.

C. ODU 11/12 explorer.

D. Periodontal probe.

B. Columbia 13/14.

Which technique with the mouth mirror is used to detect proximal anterior caries?

transillumination

If the task included calculus detection, assessing of root structure, and cementum irregularities, which instrument would be the best choice?

ODU 11/12 explorer

When activating the periodontal probe, what is the length of the vertical (up and down) stroke?

1 to 2 mm

How many zones are recorded for each tooth for periodontal probing?

6

Which is not a design characteristic of a universal curet?

A. Blade is at a 90-degree angle to the lower shank.

B. Both cutting edges are parallel and curved upward toward the toe.

C. Semi-circular in cross-section.

D. Used supragingivally only.

D. Used supragingivally only.

Which is not a design characteristic of an area-specific curet?

A. Blade is off set to 60 to 70 degrees.

B. Has one cutting edge per working end.

C. Semi-circular in cross-section.

D. Shorter straight side is the cutting edge.

D. Shorter straight side is the cutting edge.

Which is not a benefit of using an instrument with a rigid or extra rigid shank?

A. Decreases tactile sensitivity.

B. Reduces burnished calculus.

C. Reduces risk of clinician injury.

D. Requires less lateral pressure.

A. Decreases tactile sensitivity.

Which one instrument is the best choice for debriding slight soft and hard deposits in a healthy periodontium during routine oral hygiene care?

universal curet

Which Gracey has a 50% reduced blade compared with the traditional with the traditional Gracey curet?

mini-bladed

Which instrument would be the best choice to roughen area of burnished calculus?

Hirschfeld files

Which is not a design characteristic of a sickle scaler?

A. Available in straight or curved blades.

B. Blades usually 90-degrees to the shank.

C. Triangle shaped in cross-section.

D. Two cutting edges that join to form a toe.

D. Two cutting edges that join to form a toe.

The clinician locates a light calculus deposit at the base of a 7 mm pocket on an anterior tooth. Which instrument would be the best choice to remove the deposit?

standard Gracey curet

Which type of material is not recommended for an implant scaler?

A. Graphite.

B. Plastic.

C. Teflon-coated.

D. Titanium.

B. Plastic.

What cue can the clinician look for to determine if they have contacted junctional epithelium?

the tissue will blanch

Which is not a stroke principle?

A. Accuracy.

B. Activation.

C. Adaptation.

D. Angulation.

A. Accuracy.

How much lateral pressure is used when inserting instruments subgingivally?

gentle

What blade angle of a curet is ideal for insertion into a pocket?

0 degrees

Which blade angle is ideal for effective calculus removal?

70 degrees

Which blade angle will likely result in burnished calculus?

45 degrees

How much of an instrument's working end is adapted to the tooth surface?

1 to 2 mm of the tip or toe

Which is not a consideration when selecting an instrument?

A. Patient's health literacy.

B. Technique preferences.

C. Tooth surface.

D. Type of calculus.

A. Patient's health literacy.

Which is not an appropriate post-treatment instruction following periodontal therapy?

A. Avoid smoking or vaping for 7 to 10 days as it may delay healing.

B. Moisten a caffeinated teabag and apply pressure for 10 minutes to reduce bleeding.

C. Return in 2 to 3 weeks for the re-evaluation appointment.

D. Root surfaces along the gingival margin may have thermal sensitivity.

C. Return in 2 to 3 weeks for the re-evaluation appointment.

Which indicates the blade of an instrument is dull?

lack of productive sound when scaling

An instrument with a dull blade will result in all the following except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Burnished calculus.

B. Increased tactile sensitivity.

C. Instrument slippage.

D. Possibility of tissue trauma.

B. Increased tactile sensitivity.

All the following are concepts of a root planing stroke except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Clean, smooth roots are more biologically acceptable for connective tissue to reattach.

B. Remove as little healthy cementum as possible.

C. Smooth surfaces from the junctional epithelium to the CEJ.

D. Use short strokes with heavy lateral pressure.

D. Use short strokes with heavy lateral pressure.

Which term is used to describe inflamed gingiva that appears rolled like a Lifesavers candy?

festooning

What is the name of the curved periodontal probe used to assess furcation involvement?

Naber's