CCMA-1. Foundations & Basic Science

A provider writes a prescription that states a patient should take a medication every 8 hours. Which of the following abbreviations is used to represent this instruction?

1. stat

2. q8h

3. b8d

4. qd

q8h

Abbreviations

ac

Before meals

Abbreviations

pc

After meals

Abbreviations

bid

Two times daily

Abbreviations

tid

Three times a dayA

Abbreviations

qid

Four times a day

Abbreviations

qh

every hour

Abbreviations

q4h

every 4 hours

Abbreviations

qd

everyday

Abbreviations

prn

as needed

Abbreviations

stat

immediately

Abbreviations

po

by mouth

Abbreviations

pr

Rectally

Abbreviations

pv

Vaginally

Abbreviations

otic

In the ear

Abbreviations

gtt

drops

Abbreviations

sol

Solution

Abbreviations

tab

tabletA

Abbreviations

qs

as much as is needed

Abbreviations

sig

write (on the label)

Abbreviations

subq

Subcutaneous (directly beneath all the layers of the skin)

Abbreviations

supp

Suppository

Abbreviation

sl

Sublingual (under the tongue)

Abbreviations

top

topical (surface, on the skin, mucous membranes)

A medical assistant is speaking with a new patient with a history of hemoptysis. Which of the following terms defines this symptom?

1. Vomiting blood

2. Urinating blood

3. Coughing up blood

4. Non-healing wound

3. Coughing up blood

Hemoptysis = coughing up blood or bloody mucus that comes from your lungs or breathing tubes.

A medical assistant is assessing a patient’s temperature. Which of the following refers to a fever or an elevated body temperature?

1. Hypothermia

2. Tachypnea

3. Bradycardia

4. Pyrexia

4. Pyrexia

= a fever or body temperature above 100.4F. It is a sign of the body’s immune response to infection, inflammation, or other medical conditions.

Hypothermia= below 95F

A medical assistant is dispensing medication to a patient with heart failure.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the movement of medication within the body?

1. distribution

2. absorption

3. excretion

4. metabolism

1. Distribution

• Absorption

  • The process by which a drug enters the blood stream after administration.

  • Swallow orally, inhaled, intramuscular injections, intravenous injections

• Distribution

  • The process by which a drug is transported throughout the body via the circulatory system.

  • A drug enters the bloodstream and is carried to various organs and tissues throughout the body

• Metabolism

  • The process by which of the body breaks down a drug into smaller components making it easier to eliminate from the body.

  • The liver breaks down a drug into metabolites

• Excretion

  • The process by which a drug and its metabolites are eliminated from the body.

  • A drug and its metabolites are excreted through the kidneys and eliminated in urine.

Which of the following medical specialists is most likely to use a spirometer

1. Neurologist

2. Cardiologist

3. Dermatologist

4. Pulmonologist

4. Pulmonologist

Spirometry is the diagnostic test conducted using a spirometer to assess lung function by measuring the volume and flow of air during inhalation and exhalation.

A patient is participating in a patient centered medical home (PCMH) model. Which of the following descries a main principle of this model?

1. Focus on specialists rather than primary care providers

2. Importance of shared decision making

3. Emphasis on containment of medical costs

4. Minimized involvement of non-medical support services

2. Importance of shared decision making

Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)

= Focuses on providing coordinated and comprehensive care to patients in a primary care setting.

1. Comprehensive care

   1. preventive chronic disease management, behavioral health services

2. Patient-Centered approach

   1. Focus on individualized care that is respectful and responsive to the patient’s needs and preferences.

3. Coordinated Care

   1. referrals to specialists, tracking of test results, and follow-up care.

4. Accessibility and availability,

   1. with extended office hours and open communication channels for patients to reach their healthcare team.

5. Quality and safety

   1. with ongoing performance measurement and improvement efforts to ensure high quality care for all patients.

= Shared Decision Making

1. The active engagement and involvement of patients in their own care.

2. Patients are encouraged to take an active role in decision making, setting goals and objectives, and working with their healthcare team to develop and execute a comprehensive care plan.

3. Shared decision making

= Focus on specialists rather than primary care providers

1. While specialists may be involved in the care of patients in a PCMH, the focus is on providing comprehensive care in a primary care setting by primary care providers, with a strong emphasis on the patient-provider relationship.

= Emphasis on containment of medical costs

1. The focus of the model is on improving quality of care, patient experience, and outcomes, not reducing costs.

2. A different model, an Accountable Care Organization, is a type of healthcare organization that aims to coordinate and improve the quality of care for Medicare patients while also controlling costs.

= Minimized involvement of non-medical support services

1. Non-medical support services such as social workers, care coordinators, and community resources play an important role in a PCMH mode

=

1. Focus is on providing comprehensive care in a primary care setting by primary care providers,

A medical assistant is reviewing a patient's medication history following a recent dental procedure where the patient was prescribed a narcotic medication, but they are unsure which one.

All of the following are narcotic medications used for pain relief EXCEPT which of the following?

1. Hydrocodone

2. Lorazepam

3. Morphine

4. Codeine

5. Oxycodone

2. Lorazepam

1. Lorazepam

   1. Not a narcotic medication. It is a benzodiazepine used for its sedative effects and to relieve anxiety.

2. Hydrocodone

   1. used for the relief of moderate to severe pain. It is often combined with acetaminophen (ex. Vicodin) to enhance its pain-relieving effects.

3. Morphine

   1. A powerful narcotic analgesic commonly used for the relief of severe pain.

4. Codeine

   1. used to treat mild to moderate pain. It is often combined with acetaminophen or other pain relievers to enhance its effectiveness.

5. Oxycodone

   1. used for the relief of moderate to severe pain. It is available in combination with acetaminophen (ex. Percocet) or as a standalone medication.

. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety.

Topic: Foundational Knowledge and Basic Science

A provider diagnoses a patient with amenorrhea. The medical assistant should identify which of the following describes this condition?

1. Heavy menstrual periods

2. Onset of first menstrual period

3. Severe cramping with menstrual periods

4. Absence of a menstrual period

4. Absence of a menstrual period

Amenorrhea refers to the absence of a menstrual period in women of reproductive age.

It is a common gynecological condition that can have a variety of causes, including pregnancy.

1. Smarter MA Pro-Tip: [Remember the prefix "a" means "without" or "not".]

1. Examples:

   1. Avascular

      1. "a-" = "without" or "not,"

      2. "vascular" =blood vessels.

      3. "avascular" = without blood vessels or having a very poor blood supply.

   2. Asymptomatic = without symptoms.

   3. Amenorrhea

      1. "a-" = "without" or "not"

      2. "menorrhea" = menstruation or a period.

      3. "amenorrhea" = "without period" or the absence of a menstrual period.

2. Heavy Menstrual Periods

   1. Menorrhagia

3. Onset of first Menstrual Period

   1. Menarche

4. Severe cramping with menstrual periods

   1. dysmenorrhea.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient's chart for an upcoming visit and notices that the patient did not follow through with the pulmonary referral made by the primary care provider (PCP).

Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

1. Recommend the patient see a different specialist

2. Notify the PCP about the missed pulmonary appointment

3. Direct the patient to the emergency room before the upcoming visit

4. Request a new referral for the appointment

2. Notify the PCP about the missed pulmonary appointment

   1. The assistant should notify the PCP about the missed pulmonary appointment so the provider can determine whether to reschedule, follow up, or take alternative action. This action is within the scope of practice of the assistant.

3. Recommend the patient see a different specialist & Request a new referral for the appointment

   1. These are not within the medical assistant's scope. They don't choose or redirect referrals to different providers without a physician's input and they don't independently initiate referrals unless specifically instructed by a provider.

4. Direct the patient to the emergency room before the upcoming visit

   1. Sending the patient to the emergency room is only needed if they are having serious or urgent symptoms. It wouldn't be right to send them there before the visit unless there's a clear medical reason.

      
      

Smarter Summary:

. If a patient missed a referral, inform the PCP so they can determine what corrective action to take.

A medical assistant is caring for a patient who is experiencing sharp, severe chest pain that began abruptly.

What term best characterizes the nature of the patient's condition?

1. Acute

2. Tardive

3. Nosocomial

4. Chronic

1. Acute

   1. Acute refers to symptoms that have a rapid onset and are often short-lived.

      1. Example: A patient arrives at the emergency room with sudden, severe, crushing chest pain that radiates to the left arm. The pain

         started approximately 30 minutes ago.

         1. This case reflects an acute medical scenario wherein the patient suddenly manifested these symptoms.

2. Tardive

   1. Tardive refers to a slow onset of symptoms.

      1. Example: A patient presents with gradual, involuntary movements of the face and tongue. Initially, these movements were subtle and barely noticeable but have slowly progressed over the past year.

         1. This case is an example of a tardive medical condition characterized by a slow onset of symptoms, wherein the

            manifestations develop slowly over time.

3. Nosocomial

   1. Nosocomial refers to diseases acquired while in a healthcare setting.

      1. Example: A patient acquires a MRSA infection in the hospital.

         1. This is a case of nosocomial infection, an infection acquired during a hospital stay.

4. Chronic

   1. Chronic refers to conditions that are long-lasting.

      1. Example: A patient has reported experiencing severe headaches repeatedly over the last six months, occurring at least twice a week.

         1. This scenario exemplifies a chronic condition, characterized by persistent symptoms that continue over an extended period.

         2. 
            

Smarter Summary:

. Acute means conditions with sudden onset and is often short lived.

. Chronic means conditions that are long-lasting.

A medical assistant is performing an initial examination of an underweight patient.

The assistant should identify which of the following as a sign the patient may suffer from anorexia nervosa?

1. Erosion of tooth enamel

2. Resting tachycardia

3. Protruding bony prominences

4. Swollen cheeks

3. Protruding bony prominences

Anorexia nervosa (拒食）vs. bulimia nervosa（過食）:

• Signs of anorexia:

  • Self-starvation

  • Preoccupation with food and weight

  • Extreme fear of gaining weight

  • Excessive exercise

  • Distorted body image

  • Irregular or absent menstrual cycles

• Signs of bulimia:

  • Binge eating

  • Purging (such as self-induced vomiting, laxative abuse, or excessive exercise)

  • Extreme fear of weight gain

  • Distorted body image

  • Secretive behavior around food

  • Swollen cheeks or calluses on knuckles from self-induced vomiting

  • Erosion of enamel of teeth

1. Protruding bony prominences

   1. Protruding bones are a physical sign of severe weight loss which are common in individuals with anorexia nervosa (as well as in

      bulimia).

   2. The bones, especially in the arms, legs, and hips, can become prominent due to the loss of muscle and fat.

   3. While weight loss is also a sign of bulimia nervosa, another body weight preoccupation mental health condition, the question does not

      ask for a sign that is exclusive to anorexia. Rather, the question asks just for what is an expected sign in anorexia. And protruding bones

      is something that is expected with extreme weight loss.

2. Erosion of tooth enamel

3. Swollen cheeks

   1. These are both symptoms seen in bulimia nervosa, not anorexia.

      Self-induced vomiting in bulimia can lead to erosion of tooth enamel and swollen cheeks (as the salivary glands get irritated from

      vomiting).

   2. Eat then vomit = Bulimia

4. Resting tachycardia

   1. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is seen in anorexia, not tachycardia (rapid heart rate). It's not uncommon for people with anorexia to have

      a heartbeat of below 40 beats per minute.

Smarter Summary:

. Protruding bones are a sign of severe weight loss and malnutrition, which is common in anorexia nervosa.

Restriction of the flow of oxygen-rich blood to a part of the body is referred to as which of the following?

• Hypertrophy

• Ischemia

• Hypotrophy

• Necrosis

• Ischemia

  • Ischemia refers to the restriction of oxygen-rich blood to a part of the body, leading to reduced tissue oxygenation. It can result in cell damage or death if not resolved.

    • Example: A stroke is an ischemic condition that occurs when a blood clot obstructs the flow of blood to a part of the brain.

• Hypertrophy

  • Hypertrophy is the enlargement of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of its cells.

    • Example: Muscle hypertrophy in weightlifters results from individual muscle cells growing larger.

• Hypotrophy

  • Hypotrophy refers to the underdevelopment of a tissue or organ.

    • Example: In prolonged malnutrition, hypotrophy can occur, causing muscle cells to shrink.

• Necrosis

  • Necrosis is the death of cells or tissues. Ischemia can lead to necrosis, but they are not the same; ischemia is a condition, while necrosis is an outcome.

    • Example: In severe frostbite, lack of blood flow can lead to necrosis, leading to tissue death in fingers and toes.

Smarter Summary:

. Ischemia is the term for the restriction of oxygen-rich blood to a part of the body, leading to reduced tissue oxygenation.

-

Which of the following patient actions should a medical assistant identify as a sign of an obstructed airway?

1. Hands placed on throat

2. Perspiration

3. Seizures

4. Coughing

1. Hands placed on throat

• Perspiration

  • Sweating

• Seizures

  • neurological disorders

• Coughing

  • not completely obstructed

Using knowledge of prefixes and suffixes, a medical assistant should identify that the suffix "-pathy" has which of the following

meanings?

1. Inflammation

2. Paralysis

3. Disease

4. Pain

Disease

• The suffix "-pathy" is used in medical terminology to indicate disease.

  • example

    • Cardiomyopathy=

      • "cardiomyo-" = the heart muscle"

      • “-pathy" = disease.

• Inflammation

  • suffix "-itis"

  • example

    • hepatitis=

      • "hepat-" = liver

      • "-itis" = inflammation.

• Paralysis

  • Paralysis refers to the loss of ability to move some or all of the muscles in a part of the body.

• Pain = "-algia"

  • Neuralgia

    • "neur-" = nerves

    • "-algia" = pain.

Which of the following refers to difficulty swallowing?

1. Dyspnea

2. Dysphagia

3. Dystonia

4. Dysphasia

• Dysphagia

  • Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing and can result from neurological conditions, structural abnormalities, or disorders affecting the esophagus or throat muscles.

• Dysphasia

  • Dysphasia is a language disorder caused by brain injury, often from a stroke, affecting the ability to speak, understand, read, or write.

• Dyspnea

  • Dyspnea refers to difficulty breathing or shortness of breath.

• Dystonia

  • Dystonia is a movement disorder that causes involuntary muscle contractions, leading to twisting and repetitive movements.

Smarter Summary:

. Dysphagia means difficulty swallowing.

Topic: Foundational Knowledge and Basic Science

A provider has written a fentanyl patch prescription for a patient.

Which drug schedule classification does this medication belong to?

1. Schedule I

2. Schedule II

3. Schedule III

4. Schedule IV

2. Schedule II

• Schedule I

  • Acceptable Medical Use

    • No

  • Potential for Abuse

    • High

  • Safety Risk

    • Lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision

  • Examples

    • Heroin

    • LSD

    • Marijuana

• Schedule II

  • Acceptable Medical Use

    • Yes

  • Potential for Abuse

    • High

  • Safety Risk

    • Potential for severe psychological or physical dependence

  • Examples

    • Fentanyl

    • Oxycodone

    • Morphine

    • Methamphetamine

• Schedule III

  • Acceptable Medical Use

    • Yes

  • Potential for Abuse

    • Lower

  • Safety Risk

    • Potential for moderate to low physical dependence or high psychological dependence

  • Examples

    • Codeine

• Schedule IV

  • Acceptable Medical Use

    • Yes

  • Potential for Abuse

    • Lower

  • Safety Risk

    • Low potential for physical or psychological dependence

  • Examples

    • Xanax

    • Valium

    • Ambien

• Schedule V

  • Acceptable Medical Use

    • Yes

  • Potential for Abuse

    • Lowest

  • Safety Risk

    • Low potential for physical or psychological dependence

  • Examples

    • Cough medicine with codeine

      
      

A medical assistant is reviewing a patient's surgical history and notes a procedure abbreviated as CABG.

The assistant should identify that which of the following is represented by this acronym?

1. Cardiac aorta blocking guide

2. Coronary artery bypass graft

3. Cerebral artery blood group

4. Central aortic blood gate

2. Coronary artery bypass graft

• CABG stands for coronary artery bypass graft.

  • It is a surgical procedure to improve blood flow to the heart by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries using vessels from other parts of the body.

Smarter Summary:

. CABG is the acronym for coronary artery bypass graft.

Which of the following is an example of a sign rather than a symptom?

1. Headache

2. Dizziness

3. Swollen lymph nodes

4. Anxiety

3. Swollen lymph nodes

• Sign

  • Objective, observable by others

  • Ex

    • Swollen lymph nodes

    • fever

    • rash

• Symptom

  • Subjective, reported by patient

  • Ex

    • Pain

    • nausea

    • Headache

    • Dizziness

    • Anxiety

    
    

Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

1. Vitamin D

2. Vitamin A

3. Vitamin C

4. Vitamin E

3. Vitamin C

Fat vs. water-soluble vitamins:

• Fat-soluble vitamins:

  • Dissolve in fat.

  • Stored in the body's fatty tissue and liver.

  • Vitamins A, D, E, and K.

• Water-soluble vitamins:

  • Dissolve in water.

  • Excess is excreted in urine.

  • Includes the B-vitamins and vitamin C.

Smarter Mnemonic:

. Remember ADEK are the only fat-soluble vitamins.

• . Vitamin A

• . Vitamin D

• . Vitamin E

• . Vitamin K

  
  

A medical assistant is checking the nutrition facts of a patient's snack.

Which of the following components is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to be included on all labels?

1. Folic acid

2. Choline

3. Cholesterol

4. Zinc

3. Cholesterol

A medical assistant is preparing to administer an ear drop medication as ordered by the provider.

Which of the following notations should the assistant use in documenting two drops administered?

1. iv gtt

2. iv mL

3. ii gtt

4. ii mL

3. ii.gtt

• ii = two

• gtt = drops

The number of drops in a milliliter can vary based on the fluid's consistency and the dropper's size, so it's not a direct conversion.

A medical assistant is reviewing prescription guidelines.

Which of the following drugs should the assistant be aware requires a DEA number for prescription?

1. Spironolactone

2. Prednisone

3. Oxycodone

4. Betamethasone

3. Oxycodone

• A DEA number is a unique identifier issued by the Drug Enforcement Administration that authorizes a healthcare provider to legally prescribe controlled substances.

• It appears on prescriptions and is used to verify the provider's prescribing authority.

• The DEA classifies controlled substances into five schedules, based on their potential for abuse, medicinal value, and safety.

• Spironolactone

  • Potassium-sparing diuretic

  • Helps the body remove excess fluid without causing the loss of potassium

  • Used for HPN, CHF, Hyperaldosteronism

• Prednisone/Betamethasone

  • Corticosteroids

  • to use to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune response in various condition

  • Asthma, Autoimmune disorders, Allergic reactions

A medical assistant notices pinpoint red macules on a patient's arm that the provider has diagnosed as petechiae. Which of the following causes petechiae?

1. Venous trauma

2. Venous thrombosis

3. Arterial spasms

4. Ruptured capillaries

4. Ruptured capillaries

• Petechiae

  • Tiny, pinpoint-sized spots (less than 2mm) caused by bleeding from broken capillaries under the skin or mucous membranes.

• Ruptured capillaries

  • Petechiae appear as little red, purple, or brown spots on the skin and are caused by the rupture of small capillaries near the surface of the skin.

• Venous trauma

  • Venous trauma refers to any injury or damage to the veins.

  • Venous trauma can cause various consequences ranging from minor bleeding and bruising to more serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, and chronic venous insufficiency.

• Venous thrombosis

  • A venous thrombosis is the formation of blood clots within a vein, which could result in conditions such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT, usually a blood clot in the legs) or pulmonary embolism (PE, a blood clot in the lungs).

• Arterial spasms

  • Arterial spasms are sudden contractions of the muscular walls of arteries, which can temporarily narrow or block blood flow to parts

  • of the body, potentially causing pain or tissue damage.

Which of the following duties falls within a medical assistant's scope of practice?

1. Diagnosis

2. Discussing treatment options

3. First aid

4. Physical examination

3. First Aid

• Administering first aid is within the scope of practice for a medical assistant. Medical assistant training includes provide basic emergency care and support, such as dressing wounds or administering CPR, until more advanced medical help arrives.

A medical assistant is caring for a patient who recently lost her partner. When the assistant attempts to inquire about it, the patient refuses to accept that her partner has died.

Which stage of grief is the patient most likely in?

1. Denial

2. Anger

3. Bargaining

4. Depression

1. Denial

The five stages of grief:

1. Denial:

   1. This is the first stage of grief, and it involves a refusal to accept the reality of the loss. A person in this stage may try to convince themselves that the loss hasn't really happened, or that it will somehow be reversed.

2. Anger:

   1. In this stage, a person may feel angry and resentful about the loss, and may direct their anger at themselves, at the person or thing that caused the loss, or at the world in general.

3. Bargaining:

   1. During this stage, a person may try to make deals or agreements in an attempt to regain control over the situation. For example, they may make promises to themselves or to a higher power in exchange for the return of the lost person or thing.

4. Depression:

   1. This stage is marked by feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a sense of disconnection from the world. A person in this stage may withdraw from activities and may have difficulty finding pleasure in things that they used to enjoy. They may feel regret over unfulfilled goals and not taking better care of their health.

5. Acceptance:

   1. In the final stage of grief, a person begins to accept the reality of the loss and begins to move forward. They may still feel sadness, but they are able to move on with their lives and find ways to cope with their loss.

1. Smarter Mnemonic: Remember DABDA

   1. Denial

      1. Refusing to accept the loss of a partner.

      2. Refusing to accept a terminal diagnosis.

   2. Anger

      1. Blaming a family member for not taking better care of the loved one.

      2. Lash out at friends for not being there when they needed support.

   3. Bargaining

      1. Pleading with a higher power to bring their loved one back.

      2. Spending hours praying and making promises in the hopes of reversing the loss.

   4. Depression

      1. An individual might withdraw from others or lose interest in activities they once enjoyed.

      2. Spending days in bed crying or feeling numb, unable to muster the energy to engage with

         the outside world.

A provider has prescribed a patient to take a medication BID. How often is the provider indicating the patient should take the medication?

1. Two times a day

2. Three times a day

3. Four times a day

4. Once a day

1. Two times a day

Once a a day = qd

Twice a day = bid

Three times a day = tid

Four times a day = qid

A medical assistant is tasked with educating a patient about the importance of vaccines.

What type of immunity does the body generate after receiving a vaccine?

1. Cross immunity

2. Passive immunity

3. Innate immunity

4. Active immunity

4. Active immunity

• Active Immunity

  • Developed by the individual’s own immune system responding to pathogens or vaccines.

  • Long-lasting, often lifelong

  • Slow, as the body needs time to recognize the pathogen and produce antibodies. =Creates memory immune cells.

  • Vaccination, natural infection

  • Chicken pox, flu

• Passive Immunity

  • Transferred from another source, such as maternal antibodies or injections. Pre-made antibodies.

  • Short-term, lasting only a few weeks to months

  • Immediate, as antibodies are directly introduced to the body

  • Breastfeeding (maternal antibodies) immunoglobulin injections

• Cross immunity

  • Immunity to one pathogen provides some level of protection against another pathogen

  • Prior flu infection provides some protection against a new strain of a flu.

• Innate immunity

  • The body’s natural, non-specific defense mechanism

  • Skin serves as a physical barrier against pathogens

  • Stomach acid breaks down food-borne pathogens

A provider is prescribing a patient oxycodone, a schedule II controlled substance.

Which of the following is the preferred method of sending this prescription?

1. Paper prescription handed to patient

2. Electronic prescription via authorized software

3. Electronic prescription via email

4. Paper prescription faxed to pharmacy

2. Electronic prescription via authorized software

• Schedule I

  • Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Ecstasy

    • e-prescription

      • N/A (not prescribed)

    • Refills via phone

      • N/A (not prescribed)

    • Original prescription include Refills

      • N/A (not prescribed)

• Schedule II

  • Morphine, Oxycodone, Vicodin, Cocaine, Meth

    • e-prescription

      • YES

    • Refills via phone

      • NO

    • Original prescription include Refills

      • NO

• Schedule III

  • Anabolic steroids, Ketamine

    • e-prescription

      • YES

    • Refills via phone

      • YES

    • Original prescription include Refills

      • YES (up to 5 times, 6 months)

• Schedule IV

  • Xanax, Valium, Ativan, Ambien, Tramadol

    • e-prescription

      • YES

    • Refills via phone

      • YES

    • Original prescription include Refills

      • YES (up to 5 times, 6 months)

• Schedule V

  • Robitussin AC, Lomotil, Motofen, Lyrica

    • e-prescription

      • YES

    • Refills via phone

      • YES

    • Original prescription include Refills

      • YES (varies by state)

Which of the following scenarios is an example of nosocomial infection?

1. A patient develops a cold before going to the clinic

2. A patient’s IV infusion site gets infected while in the ICU

3. A patient is admitted to the hospital with extreme fever

4. a healthcare worker experiences flu-like symptoms after vaccination

2. A patient’s IV infusion site gets infected while in the ICU

Nosocomial infections are infections acquired in a healthcare facility that were not present or incubating at the time of a patient's admission. It occurs within 48 hours of hospitalization.

• A patient's IV infusion site gets infected while in the ICU

  • An infection at a patient's IV infusion site while in the ICU is an example of a nosocomial infection, as it is an infection acquired in a hospital setting.

• A patient develops a cold before going to the clinic

  • This scenario does not describe a nosocomial infection because the patient developed the cold before coming into contact with the healthcare setting.

• A patient is admitted to the hospital with an extreme fever

  • Admission to the hospital with an extreme fever indicates a pre-existing condition rather than a nosocomial infection which is acquired during the course of a hospital stay, not present at admission.

• A healthcare worker experiences flu-like symptoms after vaccination

  • A healthcare worker experiencing flu-like symptoms post-vaccination is not an example of a nosocomial infection. Such symptoms are a common reaction to vaccination and are not related to hospital-acquired infections.

Smarter Summary:

. Nosocomial infections are acquired in healthcare settings, not present at admission, and manifest within 48

hours of hospitalization.

A medical assistant should identify which of the following abbreviations is used in place of the words "symptoms" in a patient's chart?

1. sx

2. nsf

3. pe

4. sob

1. sx

sx = simptoms

nsf = no significant findings

pe = physical examination

sob = shortness of breath

Which of the following terms refers to the body’s absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs?

1. Pharmacokinetics

2. Pharmacotherapeutics

3. Pharmacogenomics

4. Pharmacodynamics

1. Pharmacokinetics

• Pharmacokinetic Processes

  • Absorption

    • By inhalation, mouth, topical, parenteral route

  • Distribution

    • By heart through the blood stream

  • Metabolism

    • By the liver

  • Excretion

    • By the kidneys to the bladder, out the urethra

Pharma-co-kinetics

= The branch of pharmacology concerned with how the body moves drugs through the body

• Absorption

• Distribution

• Metabolism

• Excretion

Pharma-co-therapeutics

= The study of how medications are used to treat medical conditions. It focuses on the effectiveness and safety of drug treatments.

Pharma-co-genomics

= Combinations of pharmacology and genomics to understand how an individual’s gene affect their response to drugs.

Pharma-co-dynamics

= the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action. It looks at how drugs affect the body.

Which of the following abbreviations from the Joint Commission’s “Do Not Use” list should be medical assistant recognize as potentially confusing and avoid using in health records?

1. 1 mg

2. QD

3. AMA

4. NPO

2. QD

Instead, daily or q24h

A medical assistant should include which of the following instructions when providing a patient with information about the proper use of a transdermal patch?

1. Maintain the same site when applying new patches

2. Avoid exercising while the patch is in use

3. The patch should remain in place for approximately 5 minutes

4. Do not shower while the patch is in place

2. Avoid exercising while the patch is in use

   1. Exercise can increase body temperature and blood flow, which could lead to a faster release of the medication from the transdermal patch. This may result in unintended elevated levels of the medication in the bloodstream. Sweating as a result of exercise can affect the adhesion of the transdermal patch, which could result in it slipping off or moving

   2. Rotate the location to prevent skin irritation, ensures more consistent medication absorption by avoiding over-saturating one area of the skin.

   3. It’s typically designed to be worn for 24 hours to several days

Transdermal Patch

• Slow absorption of medication

• Rotate the site of application daily

• Apply to fleshy, hairless area

• Lower abdomen, upper arm, and shoulder are the preferred sites

Which of the following conditions is associated with cardiology?

1. CAD

2. COPD

3. GERD

4. RA

1. CAD

   1. Coronary Artery Disease

• COPI

  • Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

• GERD

  • Gastroesophageal reflux disease

• RA

  • Rheumatoid arthritis

A medical assistant is assisting the provider with administering an intra-articular injection.

Which of the following locations is the injection being performed?

1. Into muscle tissue

2. Into the joint space

3. Into a vein

4. Beneath the skin

2. Into the joins space

• Intra-articular injection

  • injection directly into the join to space

    • Osteoarthritis pain relief or anti inflammatory

• Intra-muscular injection

  • Injection into muscle tissue

  • flu shot

• Intra-venous

  • Injection into vein

  • for rapid provision of fluids

• Intra-dermal

  • Injection beneath the skin

    • tuberculin skin test

A medical assistant feeling overwhelmed by the day’s demands decides to implement stress management techniques.

Which of the following methods is appropriate for the assistant to use during a short break to lower stress levels?

1. Listening to fast-paced music to increase energy levels

2. Speaking to a supervisor and asking for time off

3. Deep breathing to activate the “rest and digest” nervous system

4. Drinking caffeinated beverages to stay alert

3. Deep breathing to activate the “rest and digest” nervous system

• Autonomic Nervous System

  • Sympathetic Nervous System

    • Fight or Flight

      • Pupil dilates

      • Heartbeat increases

      • Bronchioles dilate (more airflow, faster breathing)

      • Sweating increases

      • Liver increases conversion of glucose for energy production

      • Decrease digestive activity

      • Stimulates production of epinephrine and norepinephrine

      • Bladder relaxes, no urination

  • Parasympathetic Nervous System

    • Rest and Digest

      • Pupil constricts

      • Heartbeat decreases

      • Bronchioles constrict (less airflow, slower breathing)

      • Liver releases bile

      • Increased digestive activity

      • Increased urination

A medical assistant is caring for an elderly female patient who recently fractured her pelvis.

The assistant should recognize that which of the following supplements promotes bone health?

1. Vitamin B

2. Zinc

3. Vitamin D

4. Iron

3. Vitamin D

• A

  • Night blindness, dry skin, systemic/internal infection

• B

  • energy production and the functioning of the nervous system.

  • Anemia, nerve problems, skin and mucous membrane problems (Depends on the type of vitamin B)

• C

  • Scurvy (gum bleeding, fatigue, joint pain), impaired immune function

• D

  • Rickets in children, Osteomalacia (softening of bones) in adults

• E

  • Nerve degeneration, impaired healing

• K

  • Increased risk for bleeding, easy bruising

• Zinc

  • contributes to general health, including immune function and wound healing.

• Iron

  • essential for the production of hemoglobin in red blood cells.

    
    

A patient with a recent terminal cancer diagnosis is constantly drying, isn’t leaving the house, taking care of herself, and won’t eat.

Which of the following stages of grief is the patient in?

1. Denial

2. Bargaining

3. Depression

4. Anger

3. Depression

1. Kubler-Ross Stages of Grief [ DABDA ]

   1. Denial

   2. Anger

   3. Bargaining: try to make deals or agreements in an attempt to regain control over the situation.

   4. Depression

   5. Acceptance

A medical assistant is in the process of organizing medications for storage.

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the proper storage of these medications?

1. Controlled substances must be stored separately from other medications

2. All medications must be stored in a locked cabinet

3. Medications of the same type can be combined from different bottles

4. Sample medications and stock medications can be stored together

1. Controlled substances must be stored separately from other medications

Controlled substances have strict regulatory requirements for storage, including separation from other

medications and in a locked cabinet. This is to prevent misuse and ensure accurate tracking, essential for legal

compliance and patient safety.

A medical assistant is speaking with a 40 years old adult patient who states in passing that she feels she is not developing professionally or personally and is self-preoccupied.

Which of the of the following development crises is this patient facing?

1. Intimacy vs. isolation

2. Ego integrity vs. despair

3. Generativity vs. stagnation

4. Trust vs. mistrust

3. Generativity vs stagnation

• Birth to 18 months

  • Trust vs. mistrust

  • Infants learn basic hope

• 2 to 3 years

  • Autonomy vs. shame and doubt

  • Toddlers gain personal will

• 3 to 6 years

  • Initiative vs. guilt

  • Children discover life purpose

• 7 to 12 years

  • Industry vs. inferiority

  • Students develop hard competence.

• 12 to 20 years

  • Identity vs. role confusion

  • Teens discover personal fidelity (the ability to live by your own values and stay true to yourself while accepting others)

• 20 to 35 years

  • Intimacy vs. isolation

  • Adults share deep love

• 35 to 65 years

  • Generativity vs stagnation

  • People practice lifelong care

• 65 years and older

  • Ego integrity vs. despair

  • Elders achieve calm wisdom

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