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Last updated 1:31 AM on 10/7/26
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62 Terms

1
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what are 5 common toxidrome?

- anticholinergic

- cholinergic

- opioid

- sympathomimetic

- sedative hypnotic

2
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overall, what are 6 drug classes that are considered anticholinergic toxins?

- anticholinergics

- antihistamines

- antipsychotics

- TCAs

- skeletal muscle relaxants

3
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what are 5 anticholinergic drugs?

- atropine

- scopolamine

- glypyrrolate

- benztropine

- trihexyphenidyl

4
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describe the mechanism of tox for anticholinergic toxicity

competitive antagonism of the effects of ACh at muscarinic receptors, both peripheral and central

5
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what key clinical signs are associated with anticholinergic toxicity? (HR/BP, RR, temp, pupils, bowel sounds, diaphoresis)

- HR/BP = increased

- RR = no change

- temp = increased

- pupils = dilated

- bowel sounds = decreased

- diaphoresis = dry skin

6
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what saying can be used to remember the key clinical signs of anticholinergic toxicity?

- hot as a hare (fever)

- red as a beet (flushed skin)

- blind as a bat (mydriasis)

- dry as a bone (dry mouth and skin)

- mad as a hatter (delirium)

- full as a flask (urinary retention)

<p>- hot as a hare (fever) </p><p>- red as a beet (flushed skin) </p><p>- blind as a bat (mydriasis) </p><p>- dry as a bone (dry mouth and skin) </p><p>- mad as a hatter (delirium) </p><p>- full as a flask (urinary retention)</p>
7
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when are symptoms of anticholinergic toxicity generally seen?

within 6-8 hrs of ingestion

8
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what lab tests are generally ordered with anticholinergic toxicity?

- CK, serum electrolytes and SCr to assess for rhabdomyolysis and AKI

- serum APAP level due to combo products

9
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what diagnostic tests are generally preformed with anticholinergic toxicity to help us understand severity of toxicity?

- ECG and pulse ox

- bladder scan for detection of urinary retention

10
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what specific risk assessments are considered when 1st gen antihistamines contribute to anticholinergic toxicity?

- sedating meds with greater anticholingeric potential than 2nd gens

- exposure less than 7.5 mg/kg of Benadryl are unlikely to cause significant tox

11
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what specific risk assessments are considered when atypical antipsychotics contribute to anticholinergic toxicity?

- toxicity influenced by age, route of admin and home meds

- pediatric pts may experience tox at a much lower threshold

- pts on chronic atypical antipsychotics are unlikely to experience tox with doses less than 5x normal dose

12
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what specific risk assessments are considered when TCAs contribute to anticholinergic toxicity?

- have a very narrow therapeutic index

- in peds one pill can kill

13
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describe the initial management for

anticholinergic toxicity

- supportive therapy = maintain airway, ventilation and establish IV line

- benzos for seizures or agitation

- sodium bicarb for dysrhythmias

- pts condition will drive need for cardiac monitoring

- assess benefits vs risks of gastric decontamination

14
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what is the antidote option for anticholinergic toxicity?

physostigmine

15
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how does physostigmine work?

- carbonate acetylcholinesterase inhibitor = reverses anticholinergic manifesations

- reserved for SEVERE toxicity

16
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describe the doing of physostigmine for anticholinergic toxicity

- 0.5-2 mg IV over at least 5 mins

- repeat every 10-15 mins

17
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what ADEs are associated with physostigmine use?

slow admin reduces risk of ADEs

- bradycardia

- bradudsrhythmia

- seizures

18
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when should physostigmine use be avoided?

known/suspected TCA toxicity

19
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what 4 types of agents are considered to be cholinergic toxins?

- organic phosphorus compounds = pesticides

- nerve agent exposure

- physostigmine

- mushrooms

20
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describe the mechanism of tox for cholinergic toxicity

- inhibition of acetylcholinesterase = causes accumulation of ACh

- overall results in the overstimulation of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

21
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what key clinical signs are associated with cholinergic toxicity? (HR/BP, RR, temp, pupils, bowel sounds, diaphoresis)

- HR and BP = no change

- RR = no change

- temp = no change

- pupils = pinpoint

- bowel sounds = exist

- diaphoresis = sweating

22
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what 2 sayings can be used to remember the cholinergic symptoms?

- DUMBELLS

- SLUDGE + killer B's

23
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what are the "killer Bs" associated with cholinergic toxicity?

LIFE threatening symptoms

- bradycardia

- bronchospasm

- bronchorrhea

24
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what cholinergic toxicity symptoms does DUMBELLS refer to?

- diarrhea

- urination

- mitosis

- bradycardia, bronchospasm, bronchorrhea

- emesis

- lacrimation

- lethargy

- salivation

25
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what cholinergic toxicity symptoms does SLUDGE + killer Bs refer to?

- salivation

- lacrimation

- urination

- defecation

- GI spasms

- emesis

- bradycardia, bronchospasm, bronchorrhea

26
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describe the general clinical presentation of cholinergic toxicity

- mild symptoms may resolve

- life threatening toxicity can develop within 1-6 hrs of exposure

- insecticides may be absorbed via skin, lungs, eyes or GI tract

27
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what symptoms associated with cholinergic toxicity may be seen within 1-6 hrs

- headache

- confusion

- coma

- seizures

28
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overall, what does death from cholinergic toxicity result from?

death caused by respiratory failure from pulmonary and cardiac effects

29
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what lab tests are seen with cholinergic toxicity?

- serum pseudocholinesterase activity = decreased

- acidosis on ABG, serum electrolytes, BUN and SCr

30
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what diagnostic tests are seen with cholinergic toxicity?

- CXR

- ECG

- pulse ox for complications from toxicity and hypoxia

31
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what 3 things does the severity of cholinergic toxicity depend on?

- route of exposure = IV>inhalation>skin contact

- potency of agent

- total dose received

32
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what triad of cholinergic toxicity symptoms suggests severe poisoning and warrants antidote trial?

- mitosis (pinpoint pupils)

- bronchial secretions

- muscle fasciculations

33
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describe the initial management of cholinergic toxicity

- decontaminants affected body surfaces

- people handling pt should wear gloves and gowns

- discuss risks vs benefits of gastric decontamination

- supportive therapy = maintain airway, ventilation and establish IV line

34
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what 2 antidotal options exist for cholinergic toxicity?

- atropine = antidotal in nature (not true antidote)

- pralidoxime (2-PAM) = antidote

35
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describe the dosing of atropine used for cholinergic toxicity

- younger than 12 = 0.05-0.1 mg/kg IV

- older than 12 = 2-6 mg IV

- can repeat every 5-10 mins until secretions or rales resolved

36
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how does atropine work for cholinergic toxicity?

- competitively blocks ACh action on receptors

- no effect on inhibited enzyme = little effect on muscle paralysis or respiratory failure

- clinical effects = alleviates bronchospasm and reduces bronchial secretions

37
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what are 3 ADEs associated with atropine use for cholinergic toxicity?

- coma

- hallucinations

- tachycardia

38
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when is pralidoxime (2-PAM) used for cholinergic toxicity?

- revered for SEVERE organophosphate poisonings

- needs to be admin within 36-72 hrs of exposure

- should be given WITH atropine

- dose = 2 grams

39
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how does pralidoxime (2-PAM) work for cholinergic toxicity?

- regenerates enzyme activity

- breaks covalent bond between cholinesterase and organophosphate

40
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what are 4 ADEs associated with pralidoxime use?

- dizziness

- diplopia

- tachycardia

- headache

41
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what monitoring is used for cholinergic toxicity?

- vital signs, blood gases, pulse ox

- leukocyte count with differential to assess for infection development

- CXR to evaluate for pulmonary edema of pneumonia

42
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describe the mechanism of tox associated with opioid toxicity

opioid analgesics bind to mu opioid receptors in the central and peripheral nervous system in an agonist manner

43
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what additional mechanisms are seen with nor-meperidine (in addition to opioid mechanism)

- CNS excitation

- leading to delirium, tremor, seizure

44
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what additional mechanisms are seen with meperidine (in addition to opioid mechanism)

blocks serotonin reuptake = serotonin syndrome

45
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what additional mechanisms are seen with methadone (in addition to opioid mechanism)

- blocks potassium efflux on myocardium

- leading to TdP, syncope and sudden death

46
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what additional mechanisms are seen with tapentadol and tramadol (in addition to opioid mechanism)

- blocks reuptake of NE and 5HT

- associated with seizure

47
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what key clinical signs are associated with opioid toxicity? (HR/BP, RR, temp, pupils, bowel sounds, diaphoresis)

- HR/BP = decrease

- RR = decrease

- temp = decrease

- pupils = pinpoint

- bowel sounds = absent

- diaphoresis = dry

48
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describe the general clinical presentation seen with opioid toxicity

- life threatening respiratory depression, less than 12 bpm

- mins-hrs after use

49
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what lab tests should be ordered with opioid toxicity?

- acidosis on ABG

- serum electroluytes in response to hypoxia

- serum BG

- determine serum APAP due to combo products

50
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what diagnostic tests are used with opioid toxicity?

- pulse ox. continuous ECG monitoring

- CXR and physical symptoms to monitor pulmonary complications

- monitor for complications of rhabdomyolysis and AKI if immobile for several hrs

51
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what is the severity of opioid toxicity dependent on?

- route of exposure = IV>inhalation of fumes>inhalation of particles

- formulation of product

- potency

- concurrent drugs

- coexisting conditions

- pharmacogentic chartacteristics

52
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describe the risk assessment used during opioid toxicity

- symptoms and presence of drugs/devices at scene can help indicate risk

- clonidine and certain atypical antipsychotics may present similarly

- antidote should NOT be delayed pending labs = GIVE IT

53
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what triad of symptoms associated with opioid toxicity suggest poisoning and warrant antidote therapy?

- depressed respirations = less than 12

- coma

- pinpoint pupils

54
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describe the initial management for opioid toxicity

- adequate respiratory support and admin naloxone

- naloxone = primary treatment

- risk vs benefit of gastric decontamination

- goal of therapy = restore adequate spontaneous respirations

55
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how does naloxone work?

- competitive opioid receptor antagonists that reverses toxic effects of opioids

- adim rapidly and IV acts within 2 mins

- short duration = 20-90 mins may require repeat dose

56
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describe the typical IV naloxone dose for an overdose

- initial dose = 0.04-2 mg

- repeat with escalating doses (increasing) every 2-3 mins, can repeat from 2-4-10 mg

- if no response at 10 mg = consider other causes

- after reversal, may need to readmin doses in 20-60 min intervals depending on exposure

- continuous infusion IV may be required for long acting opioids

57
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what are 9 examples of sympathomimetic toxins?

- caffeine

- cocaine

- amphetamines

- methamphetamines

- ritalin

- LSD

- theophylline

- MDMA

- pseudoephedrine

58
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describe the mechanism of tox for sympathomimetic toxicity

- increased in sympathetic tone through the release of catecholamine

- inhibition of reuptake

- by direct receptor stimulation and alterations in neurotransmitter metabolism

59
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what key clinical signs are associated with sympathomimetic toxicity? (HR/BP, RR, temp, pupils, bowel sounds, diaphoresis)

- HR and BP = increased

- RR = increased

- temp = increased

- pupils = dilated

- bowel sounds = increased

- diaphoresis = sweating

60
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what are 7 examples of sedative-hypnotic toxins?

- anti anxiety meds

- muscle relaxants

- anti epileptics

- pre anestehtic agents

- barbs

- benzos

- alcohol

61
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describe the mechanism of tox for sedative-hypnotic toxicity

- all facilitate inhibitory neurotransmission via the GABA receptor chloride channel

- modifies the frequency or duration of channel opening

- may decrease glutamate transmission and/or interact with NMDA receptors

62
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what key clinical signs are associated with sedative-hypnotic toxicity? (HR/BP, RR, temp, pupils, bowel sounds, diaphoresis)

- HR/BP = decreased

- RR = decreased

- temperature = decreased

- pupils = no change

- bowel sounds = decreased

- diaphoresis = dry