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NHL is the _____ cancer with highest incidence in men and ______ in women. For both, is the ____ cancer with more deaths.
7th
6th
9th
Which infectious agents could cause NHL?
EBV, HTLV-1, HHV-8, HCV, H. pylori (MALT Lymphoma associated)
Germinal center B-cell: ______ mutation causes Burkitt's Lymphoma
C-myc oncogene (chromosome 8) translocations
Germinal center B-cell: ______ mutation causes DLBCL
BCL-6 expression
Germinal center B-cell: ______ mutation causes FL
t(14;18)(q32;q21)
Germinal center B-cell: ______ mutation causes MZL
BCL-10 overexpression
Germinal center B-cell: ______ mutation causes mantel cell lymphoma
t(11;14)(q24;q32)
Lymph nodes: cancer nodes that appear above the DIAPHRAGM are generally stages ______, and below are stages _____
1-2
3-4
Which system is used for NHL staging?
Ann Arbor Staging System
A single nodal region or single extranodal site
Stage IA or IB
Two or more nodal regions or an extranodal site on same side of diaphragm
Stage IIA or IIB
Lymph node involvement on both sides of the diaphragm
Stage IIIA or IIIB
Lymph node and extensive involvement of liver, lung, or bone marrow
Stage IVA or IVB
B symptoms
symptoms including:
- unexplained weight loss (10% in 6 months prior to diagnosis)
- unexplained fever and
- drenching night sweats
Stage "X" characteristic
bulky disease
Stage "E" characteristic
means contiguous extranodal involvement
For example, what does "Stage IIBX" mean?
involvement of two or more nodal regions on one side of the diaphragm with B symptoms and a bulky mass
Which are intrathecal drugs used for NHL?
Methotrexate and cytarabine, often given with hydrocortisone as "triple IT" for CNS prophylaxis or leptomeningeal disease
What is ESSENTIAL in the workup of a newly diagnosed NHL patient?
1. Hepatitis B testing
2. ECHO or MUGA
3. Pregnancy testing if childbearing age
4. Discussion of fertility issues and sperm banking
5. HIV testing
"Indolent/follicular lymphoma" is a ______ B‑cell non‑Hodgkin lymphoma that often develops gradually over months to years, so people typically present with a long history of ________
slow‑growing
painless, waxing‑and‑waning lymph node enlargement and few or no systemic symptoms.
"Indolent/follicular lymphoma" can ____, but in about 15-30% of patients it eventually "transforms" into ________
temporarily shrink without treatment ("spontaneous" remission)
an aggressive lymphoma (most often diffuse large B‑cell lymphoma)
NHLs are a heterogeneous group of lymphoproliferative disorders, derived from monoclonal proliferation of _________ and their precursors
malignant B or T lymphocytes or NK cells
Lymphomas can be classified by their _______ and ______
cell growth/size & by type (AIDS, CNS, Cutaneous, PTLD)
Type of Lymphomas with B-cell origins, _________ is characterized as INDOLENT, _______ as AGGRESSIVE, and ________ as HIGHLY AGGRESSIVE
Follicular < Diffuse large B-cell (DLBCL) < Burkitt's Lymphoma
For early/low grade lymphomas what is the treatment?
watch and wait
For advanced lymphomas what are the treatment options?
- Chemotherapy
- Targeted (oral-PI3K inhibitors, BTK inhibitors)
- Radiation
- Radioimmunotherapy
The International Prognostic Index (IPI) gives ______ a percent of 5-year overall survival rate based on patient characteristics, each characteristic counts as 1 PROGNOSTIC VARIABLE which are then added.
Aggressive lymphomas
Which are the patient characteristics that are considered PROGNOSTIC VARIABLES for IPI?
1. Age >60 yrs
2. Stage III, IV
3. Extranodal involvement ≥ 2 sites
4. Performance status ≥ 2
5. LDH > 1 x ULN (above the upper limit of normal)
IPI Low Risk indicates: ______ (# prognostic variables), _____ (Complete response rate), ______ (5-year overall survival)
0-1
87%
73%
IPI Low/Int Risk indicates: ______ (# prognostic variables), _____ (Complete response rate), ______ (5-year overall survival)
2
67%
51%
IPI High/Int Risk indicates: ______ (# prognostic variables), _____ (Complete response rate), ______ (5-year overall survival)
3
55%
43%
IPI High Risk indicates: ______ (# prognostic variables), _____ (Complete response rate), ______ (5-year overall survival)
>4
44%
26%
Example: a 70‑year‑old with stage IV DLBCL, ECOG 2, high LDH, and liver plus marrow involvement has_____ and is ________ by IPI
all five factors and is high‑risk
Which is the PREFERRED 1st Line Tx for Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma?
R-CHOP x 4-6 cycles + locoregional RT
1 cycle = every 3 weeks (21 days)
R-CHOP stands for
Rituximab
Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin (Hydroxydaunorubicin)
Vincristine (Oncovin)
Prednisone
Which is ANOTHER 1st Line Tx for Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma?
R-EPOCH
(E: etoposide)
For DLBCL 2nd line treatment are used if 1st line FAILS, and these include:
1. DHAP (dexamethasone, cisplatin, cytarabine) +/- rituximab
2. ICE (ifosfamide, carboplatin, etoposide) +/- rituximab
3. Others regimens
4. Autologous or allogeneic BMT
_____ receptor on B cells is the most commonly targeted for Lymphomas
CD19
When targeting B lymphomas, there are various receptors for drug targets:
a. Blinatumomab & CART:
b. Rituximab, ofatumumab, obintuzumab:
c. Inotuzumab ozogamicin:
d. Polatuzumab vedotin:
a. CD19
b. CD20
c. CD22
d. CD79b
Rituximab addition to CHOP showed an increase in probability of survival. It is an antibody that targets _________ B-cells and causes ________ , ________, and _________
CD20+
Antibody-dependent cell mediated Cytotoxicity (ADCC)
Complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC)
Apoptosis
Rituximab has BLACK BOX WARNINGS and we should be on the lookout for __________, specially on patients with very bulky tumors
Tumor lysis Syndrome
Rituximab BLACK BOX WARNINGS include (x4):
• Infusion related reactions (Premeds - antihistamine, diphenhydramine, APAP)
• Hepatitis B reactivation
• Severe mucutaneous reactions
• Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
Which is the R-CHOP regimen?
Rituximab 375 mg/m2 Day 1
Cyclophosphamide 750 mg/m2 day 1
Doxorubicin 50 mg/m2 day 1
Vincristine 1.4 mg/m2 day 1
Prednisone 100 mg PO days 1-5
What are the TOXICITIES related to Cyclophosphamide?
- Severe nausea/vomiting
- Hemorrhagic cystitis (Blood in urine)
- Alopecia
- Nail/pigmentation changes
- Impairment of fertility
- Secondary malignancies
What are the TOXICITIES related to Doxorubicin?
- Cardiotoxicity
- Extravasation
- Myelosuppression
- Alopecia
- Nausea/vomiting
- Mucositis
- Hyperpigmentation
- Urine discoloration
What are the TOXICITIES related to Vincristine?
DO NOT GIVE INTRATHECALLY (Neuro probl) !!
- Constipation, paralytic ileus
- Neurotoxicity (Paresthesia, Neuropathic pain, Loss of reflexes)
- Myalgias
- Extravasation
What are the TOXICITIES related to Rituximab?
-Transient infusion reactions (fevers, chills, myalgias, dyspnea, hypotension)
- Rapid depletion of circulating B-cells lasting 3-6 months
- Normal immunoglobulin levels remain unchanged, no excess risk of infection
______ also has a SQ inj which can be administered over 5-7 minutes, can be given if the pt already received at least 1 full dose IV, but has to be premedicated before each dose (antihist + APAP)
Rituximab (Rituximab Hycela)
______ is an initial treatment phase used to rapidly achieve significant improvement or remission
Induction therapy
Which are Induction therapies mentioned for Burkitt's Lymphoma?
1. Hyper-CVAD
2. CODOX-M (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine with IT methotrexate (MTX) and cytarabine followed by high dose systemic MTX + rituximab
3. Dose adjusted EPOCH (etoposide, prednisone, vincristine, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin) + rituximab
_______ is an intensive chemotherapy regimen for aggressive B‑cell lymphomas (e.g., Burkitt's, mantle cell) and adult ALL; it stands for hyperfractionated Cyclophosphamide, Vincristine, Adriamycin (doxorubicin), and Dexamethasone.
Hyper-CVAD
Hyper-CVAD Treatment alternates two courses
A = the CVAD drugs (with mesna and growth‑factor support)
B = high‑dose methotrexate with leucovorin rescue plus cytarabine
*for CD20‑positive disease rituximab is added (R‑Hyper‑CVAD), and intrathecal methotrexate/cytarabine is commonly given for CNS prophylaxis.
For Burkitt's Lymphoma the Course B Treatment is
- Methotrexate 1 g/m2 IV over 24 hours with leucovorin rescue Day 1
- Cytarabine 3 g/m2 IV over 2 hours Q12hr x 4 doses Days 2-3
- Filgrastim 10 mcg/kg SQ beginning 24 hrs p
Which are the TOXICITIES for Methotrexate?
Myelosuppression*, mucositis*, hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity*
Part of Pharm. D. job is TDM with ______ , which is monitored and "rescued" to prevent toxicity. MTX levels are checked after the infusion starts and to ensure toxicity DOES NOT occur, _________ is administered Q4-6 H
High‑dose methotrexate (HD‑MTX)
Leucovorin
Which are some Risk Factors for Delayed MTX Excretion?
1. Drug interactions [NSAIDs, PPIs, PCNs, prior renal toxicity agents (platinums)]
2. Third spaces [Drug slowly leaks out, causes prolonged increase in drug exposure]
3. POOR hydration/alkalinization -> sodium bicarbonate (100-150 mEq) IV fluids
4. Direct nephrotoxicity by MTX
______ refers to a treatment regimen administered after initial therapies have failed to control or cure a disease
Salvage therapy
Which are Salvage therapy options for Aggressive lymphomas?
1. Autologous transplant (Gold standard for patients relapsing after conventional chemotherapy, this is changing)
2. Allogeneic transplant
3. Salvage chemotherapy [DHAP; ESHAP; (R)- ICE (ifosfamide, carboplatin, etoposide)]
Anti‑CD19 CAR‑T therapy uses a patient's T cells engineered to attack CD19; the FDA‑approved products are_________ and ______
tisagenlecleucel (Kymriah) and axicabtagene ciloleucel (Yescarta)
_________ is for adult patients with relapsed or refractory (r/r) large B-cell lymphoma after two or more lines of systemic therapy including diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) not otherwise specified, high-grade B-cell lymphoma, and DLBCL arising from follicular lymphoma
Kymriah
_______ is for adults with relapsed or refractory large B-cell lymphoma after two or more lines of systemic therapy, including diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) not otherwise specified, primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma, high grade B-cell lymphoma, and DLBCL arising from follicular lymphoma.
Yescarta
In summary, new therapies for Lymphomas are ________
salvage/refractory