CMLA Exam Review

The most commonly performed test for anticoagulation therapy is:

the prothrombin time

If a urine specimen cannot be tested within ________ it should be refrigerated.

1 hour

Insufficient centrifugation while performing a microhematocrit will result in:

a false increase in hematocrit value

A decrease in the number of white blood cells is known as:

leukopenia

Which urine parameter would be abnormal when a patient has been fasting?

ketones

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes will have abnormal results in the following urine parameter(s):

glucose and ketones

The change in the shape of erythrocytes as observed on a peripheral smear is described as:

poikilocytosis

The most common test performed in the hematology department is:

CBC - complete blood count

What does an elevated ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) indicate?

inflammation

What mineral is essential for hemoglobin production?

iron

What is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell anemia?

Hgb S

The term for increased white blood cell count is:

leukocytosis

The function of the kidney is to remove _____ and reabsorb ____.

waste products, water

What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage in the adult population?

20%-44%

Which urine parameter would be abnormal if there were bacteria present in the urine?

nitrates

The ratio of the volume of RBC to the total volume of blood is known as:

hematocrit

Which WBC produces antibodies?

lymphocytes

The most common cause of leukocytosis is:

a bacterial infection

How is a sterile urine sample collected?

by having the nurse collect while using a catheter

Which of the following cells are phagocytic?

neutrophils and monocytes

What cells are involved in hemostasis?

platelets

Variation in red cell size observed on a peripheral smear is described as:

anisocytosis

What is the total magnification of a microscope with a 10X eyepiece and a 40X objective?

400

A urine sample can be refrigerated for up to _______ and must be allowed to warm to room temperature prior to testing.

4 hours

What is the normal range for urine specific gravity?

1.010 to 1.025

The process by which a cell engulfs a foreign material such as a bacteria or virus is known as:

phagocytosis

What will happen to the WBC count in a patient with acute appendicitis?

it will be elevated

What type of cell will be increased in cases of mononucleosis (mono)?

atypical lymphocytes

What causes an ammonia smell in urine?

excessive bacteria

Which urine parameter would be abnormal if a patient has chronic high blood pressure?

protein

Which urine parameter would be abnormal in a patient with uncontrolled diabetes?

ketones

What is the blood tube of choice for the hematology department?

lavender (EDTA)

Most hematology tests are performed on:

whole blood

Which urine test measures the glomerular filtration rate - the amount of blood filtered by the kidneys?

creatinine clearance

Which phagocytic cell produce lysozymes?

neutrophils

What is the path of urine through the urinary system?

kidney › ureter › bladder › urethra

Which of the following laboratory test is performed in the hematology department?

reticulocyte count

What is the main function of white blood cells?

to protect from infection

What parts of the microscope affect the amount of light through the specimen?

diaphragm, condenser

What microscope objective is used for initial focusing?

coarse adjustment using a low-power objective

Which urine parameter measures the number of solutes in the urine?

specific gravity

A patient with an allergic reaction will have an increased number of these types of cells:

eosinophils

Laboratory refrigerators should be kept at the following temperature:

1°C to 6°C

Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell?

platelet

What is the primary function of RBCs?

to carry oxygen

How much time should pass before a Westergren ESR result is read?

1 hour

An increased sedimentation rate is seen in the following condition:

pregnancy, cancer, connective tissue disorders

What stain is used on a peripheral blood smear to differentiate the cells?

Wright's Stain

The most common metabolic disorder discovered by a urine dipstick is:

diabetes

What is the oxygen carrying component of red blood cells?

hemoglobin

What is produced by the breakdown of hemoglobin?

bilirubin

What is the preferred specimen for a differential?

EDTA

What virus causes mononucleosis (mono)?

epstein barr virus

Which of the following are part of a routine urinalysis?

physical, chemical, microscopic

Which RBC disorder changes the hemoglobin molecule?

sickle cell anemia

What is NOT a physical property of urine?

glucose level

What is the major type of WBC seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?

lymphocyte

What percent of blood are RBCs in an average adult?

40%-45%

Specimens used to test the accuracy of urinalysis procedures, reagents, and equipment are:

urine controls

Which one of the following is the urine specimen of choice for bacteriological examination?

clean catch, mid stream

There is a pathological condition in which system if a patient has the following urinalysis results?

Leuk: Positive

pH: 6.5

Pro: trace

WBC: 15-20

Bact: Positive

Nitrite: Positive

genitourinary

Which of the following is NOT a protein found in urine?

urobilinogen

What is the correct order of steps when performing a microscopic urine?

centrifuge, place drop on slide, observe with low-power field, record results

A positive nitrate result in a urine sample indicates:

bacteria

A positive leukocyte esterase result in a urine sample indicates:

white blood cells

A 24 hour Creatinine Clearance test is used to determine the function of the:

kidney

What is a patient's most common mistake while collecting a 24 hour urine sample?

not collecting all of the urine

A false positive nitrate on a urine sample indicates:

improper storage

A gradual change in the mean that proceeds in one direction over six or more consecutive days is known as a:

trend

What does the term syncope mean?

fainting

For a lab having a Certificate of Provider Performed Microscopy, what type of healthcare provider would NOT be allowed to perform microscopic procedures?

medical assistant

Who can give consent for treatment if the patient is a married minor?

the patient themselves

Another type of testing that can ensure accuracy in addition to QC is:

proficiency testing

Which of the following analytes would be most affected by a hemolyzed specimen?

K+

Liver enzymes can easily be assessed through:

blood testing

A specimen that is divided into two parts an analyzed in two different laboratories to check for accuracy is:

split specimen

What is the name of the muscle of the chest?

pectoralis major

The pathogen most commonly isolated from a wound infection is:

staphylococcus areus

To protect confidentiality, what question should a healthcare worker ask themselves before looking at a patient's medical information?

Do I need to know this?

How many stool samples are needed for an O&P?

3 fresh

The value of QC material provided by the manufacturer is known as:

target value

A sudden change in the mean that becomes continuous is known as:

shift

Which term describes the TOP portion of a centrifuged specimen?

supernatant

When blood is allowed to coagulate, the liquid portion is known as:

serum

Where should a fingerstick be performed?

on the 2nd or 3rd finger

What is it called to be free from infectious organisms?

aseptic

The HIPAA privacy rule does not protect patient information that is:

accidentally overheard

In a normal distribution curve, more values are:

close to the mean

If the laboratory receives a tube with no name, what is the proper procedure?

discard it and ask for a redraw

Quality Control is plotted on a:

Levey-Jennings chart

What information must always be clearly noted in a prominent area of a patient's file, such as the front cover or immediately inside the cover?

any known drug allergies

What does Universal Precautions mean to a healthcare worker?

to treat everything as contaminated

Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidose (GGT) is particularly elevated in:

alcoholic cirrhosis

What results from leaving a tourniquet on too long?

hemoconcentration, false elevated potassium

Removal of tissue from the body for pathological examination is called:

biopsy

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) are stored:

where they are accessible to everyone

How long must test requisitions be kept by the laboratory?

2 years

CLIA does not mandate:

waived tests

Although many antiseptics and disinfectants may kill HIV, the most practical one for use on contaminated equipment is:

10% bleach solution

All of these are common causes of random errors while testing EXCEPT:

imprecise timing