CH 5 mosby procedures

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100 Terms

1
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Which body habitus is considered a slender build?

Asthenic

2
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Which body habitus is considered a massive build?

Hypersthenic

3
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In which body habitus is the stomach and gallbladder low, vertical, and near the midline?

Asthenic

4
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Which body habitus is considered an average build, present in about 35% of the population?

Sthenic

5
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Which is the most common body habitus, present in about 50% of the population?

Hyposthenic

6
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In which body habitus is the stomach and gallbladder high and horizontal?

Hypersthenic

7
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Which body habitus has a narrow and shallow thorax?

Asthenic

8
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Which body habitus has a broad and deep thorax?

Hypersthenic

9
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Key points in performing pediatric radiography are:

Work quickly, communicate clearly with the child and parents, and report suspected child abuse

10
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The most important point to remember when performing trauma radiography is:

Do no additional harm to the patient.

11
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When you are performing trauma radiography:

Remove cervical collars only under the direction of an emergency department physician or radiologist.

12
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Which plane passes transversely across the body?

Transverse

13
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Which plane passes vertically through the midline of the body from front to back?

Median sagittal

14
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Which plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions?

Transverse

15
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Which plane passes vertically through the midaxillary region of the body and through the coronal suture of the cranium at right angles to the midsagittal plane?

Midcoronal

16
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Which describes any plane parallel to the midsagittal plane?

Sagittal

17
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What type of joint is the hip?

Ball-and-socket

18
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What type of joint has a rounded head of one bone that moves in a cup-like cavity?

Ball-and-socket

19
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What type of joint permits motion in one plane only?

Hinge

20
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What type of joint has opposing surfaces that are convex-concave, allowing great freedom of motion?

Saddle

21
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What type of joint permits rotary movement in which a ring rotates around a central axis?

Pivot

22
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The minimum two projections needed for every radiographic exam are:

Two at right angles to one another

23
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Patient respiration when imaging the lower ribs is:

Suspended at the end of expiration

24
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Which of the following statements are true regarding contrast arthrography? * Asepsis is required. * The exam may be performed on the knee, shoulder, TMJ, hip, and wrist. * Indications include trauma, capsular damage, meniscal tears, rupture of ligaments, and arthritis. * The joint is manipulated by hand to distribute contrast medium.

1, 2, 3, and 4

25
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Which of the following statements are true concerning myelography? (Select 2)

  • Injection is always performed at the L3 to L4 interspace.

  • Oily, iodinated contrast agent is the medium of choice.

  • Indications include herniated intervertebral disks, space-occupying lesions, and degenerative diseases of the CNS.

  • Contrast medium is distributed by manual manipulation of the subarachnoid space.

  • The head must be kept hyperflexed so that the contrast medium does not enter the cerebral ventricles.

  • Spinal fluid may be withdrawn for laboratory analysis.


3 and 6

26
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Intravenous urography is being replaced by which imaging modality?

CT

27
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The proper centering point for a PA projection of the hand is the:

Third metacarpophalangeal joint

28
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For a lateral projection of the wrist:

The radius and ulna should be superimposed.

29
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For a lateral projection of the forearm, (Select 2)

  • The ulnar surface must be in contact with the image receptor.

  • The thumb should be in a relaxed position.

  • The humerus and forearm should be in contact with the table.

  • The elbow should be flexed 45 degrees.

  • The central ray is directed toward the injured joint.


1 and 3

30
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For an AP projection of the elbow, (Select 3)

  • The forearm and humerus should be at right angles.

  • The central ray is directed perpendicular to the joint.

  • The forearm and humerus should be parallel to the table.

  • The hand must be pronated.

  • The patient may have to lean laterally to ensure AP alignment.


2, 3, and 5

31
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For a lateral projection of the humerus, (Select 3)

  • The hand should be pronated.

  • The patient may be upright or supine.

  • The humeral epicondyles are placed perpendicular to the image receptor.

  • The arm should be slightly adducted.

  • The central ray is directed perpendicular to the midshaft.


1, 2, and 5

32
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For a scapular Y projection (PA oblique) of the shoulder, (Select 2)

  • The central ray is directed to the shoulder at a 10-degree cephalad angle.

  • The anterior surface of the affected shoulder is centered to the image receptor.

  • The patient is rotated so that the midcoronal plane forms a 45- to 60-degree angle with the image receptor.

  • The patient continues shallow breathing during exposure


3 and 4

33
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For an AP projection of the AC joints:

To show AC separation properly, joints both with and without weights should be shown on one image receptor if possible

34
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When the clavicle is being radiographed, (Select 4)

  • PA projection must always be used.

  • A central ray angle of 25 to 30 degrees cephalad is used for the PA axial projection.

  • The patient’s head should be turned away from the affected side.

  • AP projection may be used for patient comfort.

  • An erect position may be used for patient comfort.

  • A central ray angle of 25 to 30 degrees caudad is used for the PA axial projection.


2, 3, 4, and 5

35
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For the lateral projection of the scapula, which statements are true? (Select 3)

  • The patient should be upright to reduce pain.

  • The patient is positioned obliquely with the unaffected scapula centered to the image receptor.

  • The body is adjusted by palpating the axillary and vertebral borders of the scapula so that the scapula is lateral.

  • The scapula must be projected free of the rib cage.


1, 3, and 4

36
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What is the name of a fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli of the ankle with ankle joint dislocation?

Pott fracture

37
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What condition involves the posterior portion of the tibia and the medial and lateral malleoli?

Trimalleolar fracture

38
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What condition is more commonly seen in elderly patients?

Osteoarthritis

39
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What is a tumor that arises on bone with a large bubble-like appearance and may be benign or malignant?

Giant cell myeloma

40
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What condition is characterized by the degeneration of one or several joints?

Osteoarthritis

41
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For AP radiography of the foot, (Select 2)

  • A wedge-compensating filter may be used.

  • The dorsal surface rests on the image receptor.

  • The central ray is directed 10 degrees toward the heel.

  • The central ray is directed at the head of the third metatarsal.


1 and 3

42
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When an AP axial projection is performed for the os calcis, (Select 3)

  • The leg should be fully extended.

  • The plantar surface of the foot should be parallel to the image receptor.

  • The central ray is directed 40 degrees cephalad to the long axis of the foot.

  • The central ray enters the foot at the head of the fifth metatarsal.

  • A cylinder cone may be used for this projection.


1, 3, and 5

43
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For a medial oblique position of the ankle, (Select 2)

  • The leg and foot are rotated medially.

  • The ankle is adjusted to a 90-degree angle.

  • The medial rotation is adjusted to 45 degrees to show the mortise joint.

  • The medial rotation is adjusted to 15 to 20 degrees to show the bony structure.

  • The central ray is directed vertically midway between the malleoli.


4 and 5

44
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For a lateral lower leg projection,

  • The leg is centered to the image receptor.

  • The exam may be performed with the patient on the tabletop or Bucky.

  • Roll the patient away from the affected side.

  • The patella should be perpendicular to the image receptor.

  • Include both joints.

  • The tibia and fibula should be superimposed.

  • The central ray is directed to the midpoint of the leg.


1, 2, 4, 5, and 7

45
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When a lateral knee projection is performed,

  • The patient turns onto the affected side.

  • The knee is flexed 20 to 30 degrees.

  • The patella must be parallel to the image receptor.

  • The central ray is directed 5 to 7 degrees caudad.

  • The central ray enters the knee joint inferior to the medial epicondyle.


1, 2, and 4

46
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For a tangential projection of the patella, which statements are true?

  • The patient is prone.

  • The affected knee is flexed so that the tibia and fibula form a 50- to 60-degree angle with the table.

  • The central ray is directed 45 degrees cephalad through the patellofemoral joint.

  • The tangential patella projection may also be performed with the patient supine.


2, 3, and 4

47
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For an AP projection of the femur:

The lower leg is rotated medially 15 degrees.

48
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The central ray for an AP projection of the hip is:

Directed 2.5 inches distal on a line drawn perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between the symphysis pubis and the ASIS.

49
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Which condition is commonly caused by motor vehicle accidents?

Hangman fracture

50
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Which condition is caused by acute hyperextension of the head on the neck and a fracture of the arch of C2?

Hangman fracture

51
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Which of these is a defect of the posterior aspect of the spinal canal caused by failure of the vertebral arch to form properly?

Spina bifida

52
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Which of these is a defect in the pars articularis?

Spondylolysis

53
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Which of these is a comminuted fracture of the atlas that involves both anterior and posterior arches and causes displacement of the fragments?

Jefferson fracture

54
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For a lateral projection of the cervical spine, (Select 3)

  • The patient may be upright, seated, or supine, depending on their condition.

  • SID of 72 inches should be used because of increased object-to-image receptor distance.

  • The shoulders should lie in the same plane.

  • The cervical collar should be removed so that it does not obstruct pertinent anatomy.

  • The chin should be in contact with the chest


1, 2, and 3

55
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For a lateral projection of the thoracic spine, which statements are true? (Select 3)

  • The head and spine should be in the same plane.

  • The central ray is directed to T7, at a cephalad angle of 10 degrees.

  • The patient should continue shallow breathing during exposure.

  • The exam should not be performed in a room with a falling load generator, if possible.


1, 3, and 4

56
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For a lateral projection of L5 to S1, (Select 4) * The patient is in a lateral position. * The hips and knees are extended. * The image receptor is centered to the central ray. * A cylinder cone may be used to greatly reduce the production of scatter radiation. * The central ray is centered on a coronal plane 2 inches posterior to the ASIS and 1½ inches inferior to the iliac crest.

1, 3, 4, and 5

57
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For RPO and LPO positions for sacroiliac joints:

Image the joint farthest from the image receptor.

58
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For an AP projection of the coccyx:

The central ray should be directed 10 degrees caudad, entering 2 inches superior to the symphysis pubis.

59
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Which of these pathologic conditions is easy to penetrate?

Emphysema

60
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Which of these conditions is a collapse of lung tissue and is harder to penetrate?

Atelectasis

61
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Which of these conditions is characterized by air trapped in the alveoli, making the condition very easy to penetrate?

Emphysema

62
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Which of these conditions should not be imaged using AEC?

Emphysema

63
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Which of these conditions is lung cancer arising from bronchial mucosa?

Bronchogenic carcinoma

64
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Which progressive condition is marked by diminished capabilities of inspiration and expiration?

COPD

65
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For an AP projection of the ribs above the diaphragm, (Select 2) * The top of the image receptor is placed 1 to 2 inches above the shoulders. * The shoulders are relaxed, and the scapulae are flat against the table. * The central ray is directed to T7. * Exposure is performed on full expiration to depress the diaphragm.

2 and 3

66
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For an RAO position of the sternum:

Breathing should be shallow during exposure; a falling load generator should not be used, if possible

67
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Which of these statements is true regarding lateral radiography of the sternum?

The patient should breathe during exposure, and the top of the image receptor should be positioned 1 to 2 inches above the jugular notch

68
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Which of these conditions is characterized by soft bones resulting from deficiency of vitamin D and sunlight?

Rickets

69
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Which of these conditions is a bone disease that causes bone destruction and unorganized bone repair and is generally difficult to penetrate?

Paget disease

70
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Which of these conditions is an abnormal demineralization of bone, seen more often in females?

Osteoporosis

71
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Which of these conditions is marked by abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain?

Hydrocephalus

72
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Which of these conditions is most often seen in elderly patients?

Paget disease

73
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For a direct PA projection of the skull, the central ray is directed:

Perpendicular to the image receptor, exiting the nasion when the OML is perpendicular to the IR.

74
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When the skull is radiographed in the lateral position:

The MSP and IOML are parallel to the IR, and the IPL is perpendicular to the IR

75
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Most radiographic imaging of the skull has been replaced by what imaging modality?

Computed tomography (CT)

76
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When a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection is performed for the facial bones:

The MSP is perpendicular to the IR, the head rests on the chin, and the OML forms a 37-degree angle with the plane of the IR

77
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For the axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible:

Adjust the broad surface of the ramus perpendicular to the image receptor.

78
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When the mandibular body is radiographed with the patient in the SMV position:

The IOML is parallel with the plane of the image receptor, the head is resting on the vertex, and the MSP is perpendicular to the IR

79
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Which of these projections provides the best survey study of the paranasal sinuses?

. Parietoacanthial (Waters)

80
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Which of these is a condition in which a portion of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm?

Hiatal hernia

81
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Which of these conditions involves an intestinal obstruction?

. Ileus

82
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Which of these conditions involves chronic inflammation of portions of the bowel?

Crohn disease

83
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Which of these conditions may be adynamic or mechanical?

Ileus

84
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Which of these conditions appears in an “apple-core” pattern on a barium enema exam?

Annular carcinoma

85
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Which of these conditions is visualized by performing an upper GI series?

Pyloric stenosis

86
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Which of these conditions describes a bowel obstruction caused by immobility of the bowel?

Adynamic ileus

87
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Which of these conditions is characterized by pouch-like herniations of the colonic wall?

Diverticula

88
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Which of these conditions causes a narrowing of the sphincter at the distal end of the stomach?

Pyloric stenosis

89
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Which of these conditions is a severe inflammation of the colon and rectum with loss of mucosal lining?

Ulcerative colitis

90
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For an RAO position of the esophagus:

The right side is elevated 35 to 40 degrees, with the esophagus centered at T5 or T6

91
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For a PA projection of the stomach:

Center midway between the xiphoid process and umbilicus and halfway between the midline and lateral border of the abdominal cavity.

92
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For the LPO or RPO positions for the colon:

The patient is supine, rotated 35 to 45 degrees from AP, with the central ray at the level of the iliac crest

93
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For a lateral decubitus position of the colon:

The patient lies on one side, with the image receptor and horizontal central ray centered at the iliac crest.

94
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A procedure used to evaluate biliary and pancreatic pathologic conditions with an endoscope is:

ERCP — Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

95
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Which of these conditions is characterized by fluid-filled masses in the kidney?

Renal cysts

96
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Which of these conditions is a malignant cancer of the kidney?

Wilms tumor

97
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Which of these conditions includes enlarged kidneys containing numerous cysts?

Polycystic kidney disease

98
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Which of these conditions is seen primarily in children?

Wilms tumor

99
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Which of the following describes a kidney stone?

Renal calculus

100
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For the RPO and LPO positions of the kidneys:

The patient is supine, rotated obliquely 30 degrees, with the kidney nearer the IR imaged in profile and the kidney farther from the IR imaged in its entirety