Cow Parasites

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52 Terms

1
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What is the common name for the abomasal parasite Haemonchus contortus?

Barber Pole Worm

2
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<p>What is the clinical term for the submandibular edema shown here, often caused by <em>Haemonchus contortus</em> infection?</p>

What is the clinical term for the submandibular edema shown here, often caused by Haemonchus contortus infection?

Bottle jaw

3
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What is the common name for Ostertagia ostertagi in cattle?

Brown Stomach Worm (or Medium Stomach Worm)

4
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What is the common name for Trichostrongylus spp. in ruminants?

Little Stomach Worm

5
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Which gastrointestinal stomach worm species affecting ruminants is explicitly classified as zoonotic?

Trichostrongylus spp.

6
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Where in the ruminant digestive tract do adult Haemonchus, Ostertagia, and Trichostrongylus worms reside?

Abomasum

7
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What primary laboratory methods are used to diagnose gastrointestinal endoparasitism in ruminants?

Fecal flotation and McMaster egg count

8
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Which three anthelmintic drug classes/agents are primarily used to treat gastrointestinal endoparasitism in ruminants?

Fenbendazole, Levamisole, and Ivermectin

9
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What are the two key management practices for preventing gastrointestinal endoparasitism in ruminant herds?

Pasture rotation and strategic deworming

10
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Which two protozoan species are the primary causative agents of bovine coccidiosis?

Eimeria bovis and Eimeria zuernii

11
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<p>What protozoan genus produces the characteristic oocysts shown in this microscopic fecal examination?</p>

What protozoan genus produces the characteristic oocysts shown in this microscopic fecal examination?

Eimeria spp. (Coccidia)

12
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What are the primary clinical signs of Eimeria infection in calves?

Calf displaying unthriftiness alongside microscopic coccidial oocysts and mucosal epithelial life cycle diagram

13
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What is the primary medical treatment for bovine coccidiosis (Eimeria spp.)?

Sulfonamide antibiotics

14
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What primary environmental control measure helps prevent coccidiosis outbreaks in young calves?

Avoiding overcrowding and maintaining proper sanitation/hygiene.

15
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Which two protozoan species cause bovine babesiosis?

Babesia bigemina and Babesia bovis

16
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<p> What intraerythrocytic protozoan parasite is demonstrated inside the red blood cells in this blood smear?</p>

What intraerythrocytic protozoan parasite is demonstrated inside the red blood cells in this blood smear?

Babesia spp.

17
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Which blood-feeding insect is responsible for greater economic losses in cattle in the United States than any other fly?

Haematobia irritans (Horn fly)

18
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What are the primary clinical effects of Haematobia irritans infestation on cattle?

Decreased weight gain, decreased milk production, and anemia.

19
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What primary methods are used to treat and control Haematobia irritans on cattle?

Insecticidal sprays/dust bags, walk-through fly traps, and pyrethroid ear tags.

20
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What primary clinical sign is associated with Melophagus ovinus (Sheep Ked) infestation?

Constant pruritus

21
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Which parasite species cause psoroptic mange in sheep and cattle?

Psoroptes ovis and Psoroptes bovis

22
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What primary clinical signs characterize psoroptic mange (Psoroptes spp.)?

Intense pruritus, papules, crusts, and lichenification.

23
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What are the primary medical treatments for psoroptic and chorioptic mange in ruminants?

Avermectins and lime-sulfur dips or sprays.

24
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What diagnostic technique is required to confirm a diagnosis of psoroptic or chorioptic mange?

Skin scraping

25
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Which mite species cause chorioptic mange in cattle, goats, and sheep?

Chorioptes bovis, Chorioptes caprae, and Chorioptes ovis

26
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How do small ruminants acquire Parelaphostrongylus tenuis (Meningeal worm) infection?

By ingesting snails or slugs carrying infective larvae, typically when grazing in close proximity to white-tailed deer.

27
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What clinical signs indicate Parelaphostrongylus tenuis infection in goats and sheep?

Ataxia, weakness, recumbency, tetraplegia, and cranial nerve deficits.

28
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What diagnostic procedure helps confirm meningeal worm (Parelaphostrongylus tenuis) in small ruminants?

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis alongside history and clinical signs.

29
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What is the primary antimicrobial treatment strategy for individual cattle diagnosed with Bovine Respiratory Disease Syndrome (BRDS)?

Isolation of sick animals and administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics for at least 5 days.

30
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Which primary broad-spectrum antibiotics are used to treat Bovine Respiratory Disease Syndrome (Shipping Fever)?

Florfenicol, Tilmicosin, Tetracycline (or Oxytetracycline), Enrofloxacin, Ceftiofur, and Tulathromycin.

31
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How are antimicrobials administered when a large number of feedlot cattle are affected by BRDS?

Antimicrobial agents are added directly to drinking water or feed.

32
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What is the primary management intervention to prevent Bovine Respiratory Disease Syndrome (BRDS)?

Preventing overcrowding and reducing environmental stress.

33
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What is the primary treatment approach for viral Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)?

Supportive care and treating secondary bacterial infections with antibiotics (no specific antiviral treatment).

34
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What is the primary treatment strategy for Parainfluenza Virus-3 (PI-3) in ruminants?

Prophylactic antibiotics and anti-inflammatory medications.

35
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What primary treatments are indicated for Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV)?

Antibiotics (for secondary infections), anti-inflammatories, supportive care, and fluid therapy.

36
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What primary antibiotics are used to treat Pasteurellosis (Pasteurella multocida and P. haemolytica) in cattle and small ruminants?

Oxytetracycline, or sulfonamides administered in drinking water.

37
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What is the primary management strategy for Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP)?

There is no treatment; prevention requires serologic testing, culling positive animals, and maintaining a closed flock.

38
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What is the mandatory action upon diagnosing Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis) in cattle?

Report to authorities and execute testing followed by slaughter (no medical treatment).

39
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What is the primary medical treatment for White Muscle Disease in calves and lambs?

Parenteral injection of Vitamin E and Selenium.

40
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What is the medical treatment for calves suffering from Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)?

There is no specific antiviral treatment; broad-spectrum antibiotics are given to prevent secondary bacterial infections.

41
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What is the primary control strategy for Johne's Disease (Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis) in infected herds?

Culling infected/clinically ill cows, culling heifers born to infected cows, maintaining strict hygiene, and separating disease-free herds.

42
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What is the primary treatment for Contagious Ecthyma (Orf/Sore Mouth) in lambs and kids?

There is no antiviral treatment; antimicrobials prevent secondary bacterial infections and supportive nursing enables nursing.

43
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Which drug is recommended for systemic and topical treatment of Pinkeye in small ruminants (Chlamydia psittaci / Mycoplasma conjunctivae)?

Tetracycline (or Oxytetracycline)

44
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What are the primary medical components of an effective treatment protocol for contagious foot rot in sheep and goats?

Thorough claw trimming, therapeutic foot baths, and systemic antibiotics (tetracycline, oxytetracycline, or ceftiofur).

45
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Which two therapeutic compounds are commonly used in foot baths to control contagious foot rot in small ruminants?

Zinc sulfate and Copper sulfate (Zinc sulfate is preferred as it is less irritating).

46
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What topical agents are effective for treating Dermatophytosis (Ringworm) caused by Trichophyton verrucosum in cattle?

Topical iodine, dilute bleach (1:10 dilution in water), chlorhexidine, or 5% lime sulfur.

47
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What non-surgical medical interventions are used to manage Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis (Hardware Disease) in cattle?

Oral administration of a cow magnet alongside systemic broad-spectrum antimicrobials.

48
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What is the primary treatment required for Caseous Lymphadenitis caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in small ruminants?

Immediate culling of affected animals to prevent herd exposure (or long-term antimicrobial therapy/abscess drainage in select non-culled cases).

49
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What primary antibiotic therapy is used for treating pyelonephritis/urinary infections in cattle?

High doses of penicillin administered over extended periods.

50
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<p>Which reportable orbivirus infection causes hydranencephaly in lambs as seen in this necropsy brain specimen?</p>

Which reportable orbivirus infection causes hydranencephaly in lambs as seen in this necropsy brain specimen?

Bluetongue virus

51
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What are the primary preventive measures for Bluetongue virus in ruminants?

Insect vector control and vaccination.

52
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What is the primary antimicrobial treatment for Actinomycosis (Lumpy Jaw) in cattle?

Long-term antimicrobial therapy (such as penicillin or sodium iodide solutions).