gcsu com and pop exam 2

B) Genetic changes make the flu virus

resistant to the flu shot from year to year.

1. The clinic clients respond negatively to the need for a yearly flu shot. They ask why the medical communities don't just create one shot that will last for several years. Which explanation should the nurse give?

A)Genetic changes in the bacteria that cause the flu require a rotating course of antibiotics.

B) Genetic changes make the flu virus resistant to the flu shot from year to year.

C) There is more than one strain of the flu virus and you must be protected from allof them.

D) The shots last only for 3 to 6 months and must be renewed on a yearly basis.

B) Develop improved defenses against reinfection

2.Nursing students in an enclosed classroom begin to become ill with a gastrointestinal illness. The public health department Page 63 identifies this occurrence as an emerging epidemic and isolates the population that is ill. According to microbial adaptation, those who survive the illness will then do which of the following?

A) Recover with adaptive organism reintroduction into the environment

B) Develop improved defenses against reinfection

C) Become hosts to the organism, which is symbiotic in nature

D) Become carriers of the infection, ultimately leading to an epidemic

B) The unexposed population is not likely to contract the illness

3.Three years after exposure to a virulent form of the flu, a population faces the same flu strain. The public health department recognizes that there are members of the population who have not been exposed to the flu strain. Which is most likely to happen?

A) The unexposed population will contract Page 64 the illness

B) The unexposed population is not likely to contract the illness

C) The unexposed population will contract the illness and reinfect others

D) The flu will reach epidemic proportions and both populations will become ill

A) Temperature

C) Precipitation

D) Humidity

4.Which environmental factors are likely to affect the life cycle of disease pathogens and their vectors and thus disease outbreaks? (Select all that apply.)

A) Temperature

B) Geology

C) Precipitation

D) Humidity

E) Amount of daylight

A) Poor hygiene

C) Poor sanitation

5.Tent communities are constructed in a rural community by the American Red Cross after a disaster. Because of overcrowding, surrounding states create accommodations for the displaced and homeless. The survivors are accommodated in the cities of four Southern states. Which factors may increase the possibility of disease emergence in the cities? (Select all that apply.)

A) Poor hygiene

B) Decreased socialization

C) Poor sanitation

D) Decreased viral load

E) Increased violence

C) Adaptation

6.An 80-year-old client is being treated for chronic urinary tract infections. She has received multiple antibiotics in the past 6 months. The physician orders a urine culture. The results of the urine culture are as follows: Staphylococcus aureus >100,000 colonies and demonstrated resistance to sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Bactrim), penicillin, methicillin, and erythromycin. The client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) on the basis of the findings of her urine test. Based on the client's history, a cause of the MRSA might be microbial:

A) Rejection

B) Assimilation

C) Adaptation

D) Stagnation

B) Enhanced infection control measures

7.The community health nurse works in a region where severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) has just been reintroduced into the environment. Which measure is imperative for the nurse to take to prevent spread of the disease?

A) Prophylactic antibiotics

B) Enhanced infection control measures

C) Use of alcohol cleansers

D) Report of clusters to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

B) Respiratory hygiene

C) Hand hygiene

D) Droplet precautions for visitors in contact

8.There is an outbreak of Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus (MERS-CoV) in the community. The nurse is responsible for the dissemination of the education plan adopted by the public health department. Key components of the plan should include: (Select all that apply.)

A) Quarantining infected families in their homes

B) Respiratory hygiene

C) Hand hygiene

D) Droplet precautions for visitors in contact with affected clients

E) Contact precautions for all cases

D) Antigenic shift

9.International health experts indicate that the avian flu is the virus most likely to cause the next pandemic. What may improve its transmissibility to the public?

A) Increase in consumption of chicken

B) Increase in autoimmune disease incidence

C) Shift to zoonotic transmission

D) Antigenic shift

A) 12-room unit with negative air pressure units

10.The nurse is responsible for the

construction of an isolation unit during an

H5N1 outbreak. The unit is designated for

only those clients with a confirmed

diagnosis of H5N1. Which unit would be

easily adapted to client needs?

A) 12-room unit with negative air pressure units

B) 15-room unit with a portable supply of PPEs

C) 8-room unit with four code carts

D) 12-room unit with four to six air changes per hour

B) Avoid contact with mosquitoes

D) Eliminate standing water

11.Ten documented cases of West Nile virus (WNV) have occurred recently in the community. To reduce the transmission of the virus, the nurse should educate the members of the community to: (Select all that apply.)

A) Avoid contact with birds

B) Avoid contact with mosquitoes

C) Avoid those with a confirmed diagnosis

D) Eliminate standing water

E) Avoid exposure to the environment during the daylight hours

D) "A history of a tick bite is not required."

12.The client is diagnosed with Lyme disease. He states that he is not a hiker and does not remember being bitten by a tick. As part of the education plan, the nurse should state:

A) "You must have been bitten by a tick and didn't recognize it as such."

B) "Did you spend time in a brushy or grassy area in the last 90 days?"

C) "Conduct a full-body tick check once a week during the summer."

D) "A history of a tick bite is not required."

D) Animals roaming in the fair grounds

13.The nurse admits a client to the hospital with the diagnosis of Escherichia coli O157:H7. The client is dehydrated and febrile. During the history phase of the admission, the client states that he doesn't know how he could have gotten sick at the local county fair—the hamburger he bought was well done. Upon further discussion, the nurse suspects the transmission may have occurred because of:

A) Use of a gas barbecue

B) Improper cleaning of the cooking tools

C) Use of wood instead of charcoal to cook the meat

D) Animals roaming in the fair grounds

D) Takes immunosuppressants

14.Four employees at a local restaurant have positive purified protein derivative (PPD) tuberculin skin tests and have been diagnosed with latent tuberculosis (TB) infection. Which employee would be at

the greatest risk for contracting active TB disease?

A) Works two jobs

B) Vacations in South America

C) Cooks the food

D) Takes immunosuppressants

C) Is HIV positive

15.The nurse assesses a client in the local neighborhood clinic. He exhibits signs and symptoms of tuberculosis (TB) yet has a negative tuberculin skin test result. The nurse suspects that the physician may further test the client because he:

A) Visited Central America recently

B) Is recovering from jet lag

C) Is HIV positive

D) Works in a factory setting

A) Social service support

B) Housing assistance

E) Treatment enablers

16.The nurse is responsible for the directly observed therapy (DOT) program in the community. Which represent the best methods to ensure compliance with clients' drug regimens? (Select all that apply.)

A) Social service support

B) Housing assistance

C) Hospitalization

D) Isolation until treatment complete

E) Treatment enablers

A) Concentration of infectious droplet nuclei in the air

B) Duration of exposure to the infected person

C) Proximity to the infected person

17.As the occupational health nurse in a factory finds that five employees out of 30 have positive tuberculin skin test results. One employee on the 3-to-11 shift has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). She asks if this means that the whole factory has been exposed. The nurse replies that the probability of infection depends upon: (Select all thatapply.)

A) Concentration of infectious droplet nuclei in the air

B) Duration of exposure to the infected person

C) Proximity to the infected person

D) The use of safety gloves by employees

E) Physical exertion required in the job

C) 6-mm induration

18.A man who lives in a homeless shelter is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). The shelter keeps a list of those who are assigned beds, and the majority of those sleeping there are regulars. Which finding would indicate a positive tuberculin skin test result using a two-step process?

A)4-mm induration

B)2-mm induration

C)6-mm induration

D)3-mm induration

B) Tuberculosis guidelines require testing of an entire healthcare setting.

19.Each employee in a small community hospital is informed that he or she needs a tuberculin skin test and of the date that the test is due. The kitchen employees tell the nurse that they don't need the test and never had to have it before. The nurse should respond with:

A) The test does not need to be given if you do not have client contact.

B) Tuberculosis guidelines require testing of an entire healthcare setting.

C) The test will not hurt; we won't fire you if you test positive.

D) The tuberculosis guidelines state kitchen workers are at risk.

A) Genetic and biological

B) Physical/environmental

D) Ecological

E) Social, political, and economic

20.A nurse is studying the Institute of Medicine's convergence model to learn how four types of interrelated and overlapping microbe-human interactions can lead to emerging/reemerging infectious diseases. These four types of interactions are: (Select all that apply.)

A) Genetic and biological

B) Physical/environmental

C) Spiritual and psychological

D) Ecological

E) Social, political, and economic

A) Fluid-resistant gown

B) Gloves

D) Mask

E) Goggles

21.The nurse prepares to enter the room of a client with suspected Ebola virus disease (EVD). Which pieces of personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse wear? (Select all that apply.)

A) Fluid-resistant gown

B) Gloves

C) Respirator

D) Mask

E) Goggles

C) Agent

1. The nurse works with a female client who recently developed an infection of Staphylococcus aureus while in the hospital. In this case, S. aureus is which component in the chain of infection?

A) Host

B) Environmental reservoir

C) Agent

D) Portal

B) Portal of exit from the infected person

C) Means of transmission

D) Portal of entry to a susceptible host

2.A student nurse asks if an infectious disease is the same thing as a communicable disease. The nurse explains that an infectious disease is not necessarily a communicable disease. Which must a communicable disease have that an infectious disease does not have to have? (Select all that apply.)

A) Pathogenic microorganism

B) Portal of exit from the infected person

C) Means of transmission

D) Portal of entry to a susceptible host

E) Organism that harbors the infectious agent

A) Fungi

C) Bacteria

D) Viruses

E) Helminths

3. Infectious agents are biological agents capable of producing an infection or infectious disease. Which are considered biological agents? (Select all that apply.)

A) Fungi

B) Fomites

C) Bacteria

D) Viruses

E) Helminths

A) Age

B) Sex

D) Physical and emotional health

E) Immune status

4.In infectious disease epidemiology, just the presence of an infectious agent is not sufficient to produce an infectious disease. Which host factors determine whether a person is at risk for an infection or an infectious disease? (Select all that apply.)

A) Age

B) Sex

C) Occupation

D) Physical and emotional health

E) Immune status

C) Incubation period

5.When an infectious agent enters the host and begins to multiply, an infection occurs. The time between exposure to an infectious agent and the manifestation of symptoms in the host is known as:

A) Carrier time

B) Colonization

C) Incubation period

D) Latent period

A) Airborne

6.A client with tuberculosis sneezes in the waiting room and infects several other clients who are sitting on the other side of the room. Which mechanism of transmission is involved in this case?

A) Airborne

B) Droplet

C) Direct contact

D) Indirect contact

D) Water

7.The student-nurse discusses transmission that involves contact of a susceptible host with a vehicle. Based on the chain of infection links, which exemplifies a vehicle?

A) Animals

B) Insects

C) Reptiles

D) Water

A) Endemic

8.Chloroquine-resistant malaria occurs in most of Africa, the Middle East, and Asia and all of the South Pacific islands. This type of disease occurrence is known as:

A) Endemic

B) Epidemic

C) Pandemic

D) Outbreak

C) Generating secondary infections with intervals between peaks that approximate the usual incubation period for the infection

9.Person, place, and time characterize the description of an epidemiologic problem. Using knowledge of outbreak investigations, which occurs with propagated outbreaks?

A) Same person or vehicle as the reservoir or means of transmission

B) Infection transmitted from person to person over a short period of time

C) Generating secondary infections with intervals between peaks that approximate the usual incubation period for the infection

D) Generating tertiary infections following exposure to a primary case

B) State

10.Several levels of public health surveillance are necessary to protect the nation's health. At what level are healthcare providers and health facilities required to report certain infectious diseases?

A) Local

B) State

C) Federal

D) International

D) Department of Defense

11.Which agency has an electronic surveillance system for the early notification of community-based epidemics?

A) Department of Health and Human Services

B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

C) World Health Organization

D) Department of Defense

A) Starting an intravenous line for fluid and electrolyte replacement

B) Encouraging the client and the client's family to practice good handwashing

C) Immediate disinfecting all potentially contaminated objects and surfaces

12.A client arrives on the unit, diagnosed with norovirus infection from eating shellfish. The client has been vomiting repeatedly and is now severely dehydrated. Which interventions are likely to be performed for this client? (Select all that apply.)

A) Starting an intravenous line for fluid and electrolyte replacement

B) Encouraging the client and the client's family to practice good handwashing

C) Immediate disinfecting all potentially contaminated objects and surfaces

D) Isolating the client until 12 hours after the client has been symptom free

E) Administering a vaccination

A) Campylobacter

13.A client presents with severe diarrhea. The client tells the nurse that she went to a chicken roast at church the previous weekend. The nurse suspects a foodborne illness. Which cause of bacterial foodborne illness should the nurse most suspect in this case?

A) Campylobacter

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Salmonella

D) Escherichia coli O157:H7

B) Listeria monocytogenes

14.A client arrives at the clinic reporting diarrhea and flu-like symptoms. On questioning, the client tells the nurse about a family gathering she attended recently where she had some smoked seafood. Which foodborne illness should the nurse most suspect in this client?

A) Campylobacter

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Salmonella

D) Escherichia coli O157:H7

A) One level teaspoon of salt and eight level teaspoons of sugar into one quart or liter of clean drinking water

15.The client reports diarrhea, fever, and abdominal cramps 24 hours following exposure to raw eggs while cooking. An efficient and effective homemade oral rehydration solution is to stir:

A) One level teaspoon of salt and eight level teaspoons of sugar into one quart or liter of clean drinking water

B) Eight level teaspoons of salt and one level teaspoon of sugar into one quart or liter of clean drinking water

C) One level teaspoon of salt and one level teaspoon of sugar into one quart or liter of clean drinking water

D) Eight level teaspoons of salt and eight level teaspoons of sugar into one quart or liter of clean drinking water

C) 7 to 10 days

16.A client reports symptoms of severe abdominal cramps, bloody diarrhea, and vomiting after eating commercially packaged salad. The nurse suspects Escherichia coli O157:H7. The client asks about the average time of resolution of these symptoms. What time frame should the nurse provide?

A) 3 to 5 days

B) 5 to 7 days

C) 7 to 10 days

D) 12 to 14 days

C) Two or more people having experienced a similar illness after exposure to water

17.Which criteria must be met to define a water-associated disease outbreak?

A) Two or more people with laboratory-confirmed primary amebic meningoencephalitis

B) Two or more cases of chemical poisoning if water quality data indicate contamination by the chemical

C) Two or more people having experienced a similar illness after exposure to water

D) Epidemiologic evidence implicating drinking water as the probable source of the illness

C) Chlamydia

D) Gonorrhea

E) Syphilis

18.A 16-year-old client visits the community health clinic with concerns that she may have a sexually transmitted infection (STI). She asks whether STIs are treatable. STIs that are easily treated and curable include: (Select all that apply.)

A) Human papillomavirus

B) Herpes simplex

C) Chlamydia

D) Gonorrhea

E) Syphilis

A) Having multiple sex partners

D) Having a sexual partner who has had an STI

19.Which factors place an individual at high risk for acquiring a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? (Select all that apply.)

A) Having multiple sexual partners

B) Using a condom during sex

C) Having no other STIs

D) Having a sexual partner who has had an STI

E) Receiving a blood transfusion

A) Abstinence

20.A client wants to know the best way to avoid sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse should mention:

A) Abstinence

B) Monogamous relationship with an infected partner

C) Washing the genitals after sex

D) Use of latex condoms

C) Syphilis

21.A client presents with several ulcerative sores on his penis that are firm, round, and painless. He also has rough, reddish brown spots on his palms and the bottoms of his feet. He acknowledges that he is sexually active with multiple partners and is inconsistent in his use of a condom. Which sexually transmitted infection should the nurse most suspect in this client?

A) Gonorrhea

B) Chlamydia

C) Syphilis

D) Human papillomavirus

A) Major cardiovascular-renal disease

1. Which was the leading cause of death in the United States in 1900?

A) Major cardiovascular-renal disease

B) Influenza and pneumonia

C) Tuberculosis

D) Gastritis, duodenitis, enteritis, and colitis

B) Aretaeus the Cappadocian

2.Who first described pulmonary tuberculosis in detail?

A) Hippocrates of Cos

B) Aretaeus the Cappadocian

C) Claudius Galen

D) Susruta

A) Hippocrates of Cos

3.Who is considered the first epidemiologist?

A) Hippocrates of Cos

B) Aretaeus the Cappadocian

C) Claudius Galen

D) Susruta

D) A tentative hypothesis is formulated

4.Which occurs in the epidemiologic process that is similar to the diagnosis phase of the nursing process?

A) Data are gathered from reliable sources

B) Healthcare needs and assets are identified

C) Goals and objectives for care are established

D) A tentative hypothesis is formulated

A) William Farr

5.Who in the history of epidemiology developed mortality surveillance systems, addressed basic epidemiologic concepts, and is considered the founder of modern statistics?

A) William Farr

B) John Graunt

C) Florence Nightingale

D) John Snow

D) Morbidity and mortality from noninfectious diseases have increased.

6.Which most accurately describes how disease patterns have changed from 1900 to the present?

A) Morbidity and mortality from infectious diseases have increased.

B) Morbidity and mortality from unintentional injuries have decreased.

C) Morbidity and mortality from chronic degenerative conditions have decreased.

D) Morbidity and mortality from noninfectious diseases have increased.

C) Study of the distribution and determinants of states of health and illness in human populations

7.The community health nurse knows that early attempts to understand illness and disease focused on the study of the experiences of individual people. Using this knowledge, how would the nurse define epidemiology to a group of nursing students?

A) An outbreak that occurs when there is an increased incidence of a disease beyond that which is normally found in the population

B) Model based on the belief that health status is determined by the interaction of the characteristics of the host, agent, and environment

C) Study of the distribution and determinants of states of health and illness in human populations

D) Epidemiologic model that strongly emphasizes the concept of multiple causation while de-emphasizing the role of agents in explaining illness

B) Primary measurement used to describe either the occurrence or the existence of a specific state of health or illness

8.Which most accurately defines ìrateî?

A) Course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution

B) Primary measurement used to describe either the occurrence or the existence of a specific state of health or illness

C) Probability or likelihood that a disease or illness will occur in a group of people who presently do not have the problem

D) Characteristic or event that has been shown to increase the probability that a specific disease or illness will develop

B) John Graunt

9.Who was one of the first people to study patterns of disease in populations and analyzed the weekly reports of births and deaths in London, the results of these analyses becoming the precursor of modern vital statistics?

A) William Farr

B) John Graunt

C) Florence Nightingale

D) John Snow

D) John Snow

10.Who was the best known epidemiologist of the 19th century and used population data and personal observations to investigate the epidemic of cholera that occurred from 1848 through 1854?

A) William Farr

B) John Graunt

C) Florence Nightingale

D) John Snow

A) Epidemiologic triad

11.In researching cases of West Nile virus in the community, the nurse explores how the interactions among people infected with this virus, mosquitoes, and the environment they share contribute to outbreaks of this disease. Which epidemiologic model is used in this case?

A) Epidemiologic triad

B) Wheel of causation

C) Web of causation

D) Natural history

C) Web of causation

12.The nurse explores all of the possible factors that contribute to coronary artery disease in the community as links in multiple interrelated chains. Which epidemiologic models is the nurse using?

A) Epidemiologic triad

B) Wheel of causation

C) Web of causation

D) Natural history

D) Refer clients who have experienced neurological deficits because of the disease to a neurologist to begin rehabilitation.

13.The community health nurse addresses an outbreak of viral spinal meningitis in the community. Referring to Leavell and Clark's natural history of disease model, which example of tertiary prevention might the nurse consider in this situation?

A) Initiate vaccinations for all people who have not yet been infected.

B) Familiarize yourself with the signs and symptoms of the disease so that you can provide early diagnosis and treatment of it.

C) Encourage any who think they might have symptoms of the disease to come to the community health clinic to be assessed as soon as possible, to prevent associated disabilities.

D) Refer clients who have experienced neurological deficits because of the disease to a neurologist to begin rehabilitation.

B) Actions are initiated to carry out the plan

14.Which occurs in the epidemiologic process that is similar to the implementation phase of the nursing process?

A) Data are gathered from reliable sources

B) Actions are initiated to carry out the plan

C) Actions are evaluated and report prepared

D) Further research is conducted if necessary

D) Characteristic or event that has been shown to increase the probability that a specific disease or illness will develop

15.Which best describes a risk factor?

A) Course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution

B) Primary measurement used to describe either the occurrence or the existence of a specific state of health or illness

C) Probability or likelihood that a disease or illness will occur in a group of people who presently do not have the problem

D) Characteristic or event that has been shown to increase the probability that a specific disease or illness will develop

C) Pathological onset, presymptomatic, manifestation of clinical disease

16.Which represents the correct order of the three stages of the natural history of disease?

A) Pathological onset, manifestation of clinical disease, presymptomatic

B) Presymptomatic, pathological onset, manifestation of clinical disease

C) Pathological onset, presymptomatic, manifestation of clinical disease

D) Manifestation of clinical disease, presymptomatic, pathological onset

A) The names of all people who have been infected by the virus

B) The geographical area within which the outbreak has occurred

D) The time of onset and duration of the outbreak

17.The nurse has been requested to investigate the outbreak of H1N1 in the community. In documenting the outbreak, which should be included in its description? Select all that apply.

A) The names of all people who have been infected by the virus

B) The geographical area within which the outbreak has occurred

C) A brief history of all of the other viral outbreaks that have occurred in the community in recent years

D) The time of onset and duration of the outbreak

E) The anticipated economic impact of the outbreak on the community

B) Wheel of causation

18.In researching an outbreak of malaria in the developing nation where the nurse currently works, the nurse decides to not focus on the role of mosquitoes in transmitting the disease but on how the physical environment of the community, biological aspects of the community, and social customs interact to affect the prevalence of this disease. Which epidemiological model is the nurse using?

A) Epidemiologic triad

B) Wheel of causation

C) Web of causation

D) Natural history

A) Measure epidemiologic statistics before and after administering the flu shots.

B) Plan and evaluate influenza vaccinations regularly.

D) As new data regarding influenza vaccinations become available, modify the intervention accordingly.

19.The nurse is in charge of the flu vaccination program in the community. Which actions should the nurse take when planning and evaluating this program? Select all that apply.

A) Measure epidemiologic statistics before and after administering the flu shots.

B) Plan and evaluate influenza vaccinations regularly.

C) Interview clients regarding their perception of the effectiveness of the vaccinations and use these data in planning future vaccinations.

D) As new data regarding influenza vaccinations become available, modify the intervention accordingly.

E) Evaluate the success of your program by comparing its results with those in other communities.

C) Florence Nightingale

20.Who used statistics to improve public health in England?

A) William Farr

B) John Graunt

C) Florence Nightingale

D) John Snow

D) Establish the existence of the outbreak

21. You have heard rumors in the hospital where you work of an Ebola outbreak in your community and you would like to investigate it further. Which of the following should be your first step in the investigation?

A) Identify the names of the people infected by the virus

B) Formulate and test hypotheses as to the most probable causative factors

C) Implement a plan for control of the outbreak

D) Establish the existence of the outbreak

A) Rate

1. Which is the primary method used to measure the existence of states of health or illness in a population during a given time period?

A) Rate

B) Ratio

C) Relative risk ratio

D) Sensitivity

C) Number of conditions or events within a designated period of time/ Population at risk during the same period of time × Base multiple

2.Which formula should be used to calculate a rate?

A) Number of true positives/Number of true positives + Number of false negatives

B) Number of true negatives/ Number of true negatives + Number of false positives

C) Number of conditions or events within a designated period of time/ Population at risk during the same period of time × Base multiple

D) Number of deaths from a specific disease/ Number of cases of the same disease X 100

A) Number of deaths of children

3.Which formula should be used to calculate the infant mortality rate?

A) Number of deaths of children

A) Statistical procedure that removes the effects of differences in the composition of a population, such as age, when comparing one with another

4.Which correctly defines an adjusted rate?

A) Statistical procedure that removes the effects of differences in the composition of a population, such as age, when comparing one with another

B) Measure of the probability that people without a certain condition will develop that condition over a period of time

C) Measure of the number of people in a given population who have an existing condition at a given point in time

D) Detailed rates that are calculated using the number of people in the smaller subgroups of the population in the denominator

C) Prevalence

5.Which rate measures the number of people in a given population who have influenza at a given point in time?

A) Adjusted

B) Incidence

C) Prevalence

D) Specific

C) Crude

6.The nurse is measuring the occurrence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease being investigated in the entire population. Which rate does this represent?

A) Adjusted

B) Attack

C) Crude

D) Incidence

D) Specific.

7.The nurse wishes to compare the number of persons aged 40 to 49 years who die each year with the midyear population of persons in this age range, per 100,000 population. Which type of rate is the nurse attempting to calculate?

A) Adjusted

B) Incidence

C) Prevalence

D) Specific

B) Cause-specific mortality rate

8.. The nurse wishes to determine how many people in the city die from heart attacks each year per 100,000 population. Which type of rate is the nurse attempting to calculate?

A) Age-specific mortality rate

B) Cause-specific mortality rate

C) Case fatality rate

D) Crude mortality rate

B) Ability of a test to correctly identify people who have a health problem or the probability of testing positive if the health problem is truly present

9.Which correctly defines sensitivity?

A) The ratio of the incidence rate in the exposed group to the incidence rate in the nonexposed group

B) Ability of a test to correctly identify people who have a health problem or the probability of testing positive if the health problem is truly present

C) Variations measured in hours, days, weeks, or months and commonly used to quantify outbreaks of infectious disease

D) Ability of a test to correctly identify people who do not have a health problem or the probability of testing negative if the health problem is truly absent

A) Number of true positives/Number of true positives + Number of false negatives

10.Which formula should be used to calculate sensitivity?

A) Number of true positives/Number of true positives + Number of false negatives

B) Number of true negatives/Number of true negatives + Number of false positives

C) Number of conditions or events within a designated period of time/ Population at risk during the same period of time X Base multiple

D) Number of deaths from a specific disease /Number of cases of the same disease X 100

A) Incidence density

11.The nurse wishes to measure the number of cases of staph infections that occur in a hospital over the course of 1 year per total client-days during that year. Which measure should the nurse use?

A) Incidence density

B) Prevalence rate

C) Relative risk ratio

D) Specific rate

C) Relative risk ratio

12.Incidence rates for groups exposed to a secondhand smoke are compared with the incidence rates for people who are not exposed to secondhand smoke. This will measure the:

A) Incidence density

B) Prevalence rate

C) Relative risk ratio

D) Specific rate

B) Incidence rate

13.The nurse wishes to calculate the probability of persons in your county developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease over the course of a year. Which measure should the nurse use?

A) Incidence density

B) Incidence rate

C) Relative risk ratio

D) Specific rate

14.Which formula should be used to calculate the fetal mortality rate?

A) Number of deaths of children

D) Number of fetal deaths in one year /Number of live births plus fetal deaths in the same year X1000

15.Which formula should be used to calculate perinatal mortality rate?

A) Number of deaths of children

B) Number of fetal deaths plus infant deaths

16.Over the course of a year, there were 42 cases of institution-associated pneumonia at a hospital. During that time, 3,102 clients were at risk for acquiring this infection, with 20,411 client-days. Which is the crude incidence rate of institution-associated pneumonia at this hospital?A) 0.21%B) 1.35%C) 1.52%D) 15.20%

B) 1.35%

17.Over the course of a year, there were 42 cases of institution-associated pneumonia at a hospital. During that time, 3,102 clients were at risk for acquiring this infection, covering a total of 20,411 client-days. Which is the client density in terms of number of cases per 1,000 client-days at this hospital during this time?A) 2.1B) 13.5C) 15.2D) 152

A) 2.1

18.In reviewing a study that considered the sensitivity of a particular screening test for HIV, the nurse found 21 true positives, 853 true negatives, 3 false positives, and 5 false negatives. What is the sensitivity of this test?

A) 80.8%

B) 87.5%

C) 93.7%

D) 99.6%

A) 80.8%

19.City A has a population of people who are exposed to HIV, whereas City B has a population of people who are considered nonexposed to HIV. There were 3,267 new HIV cases in a given year for City A, with a population (exposed) of 10,000,000. There were only 5 new HIV cases in the same year for City B, with a population (nonexposed) of 150,000. Which is the attributable risk of HIV occurring in City A in terms of cases per 100,000 population?

A) 3.33

B) 13.55

C) 29.34

D) 32.67

C) 29.34

20.The nurse graphs the distribution of influenza cases by the time of onset of influenza. Which would be the result of this work?

A) Epidemic curve

B) Epidemiologic descriptive study

C) Incidence density

D) Incidence rate

A) Epidemic curve

21.The nurse is conducting research on the relative risk of acquiring lung cancer as a result of being exposed to secondhand smoke. The nurse is studying two different groups. Group A includes 400 adults who do not smoke but are exposed to secondhand smoke in their home on a daily basis. Group B includes 400 adults who do not smoke and are not exposed to secondhand smoke in their home. Over the course of 10 years, 20 subjects in Group A are diagnosed with lung cancer, whereas only 2 subjects in Group B are diagnosed with lung cancer. Which is the relative risk ratio that would result from this study?

A) 0.5

B) 1

C) 5

D) 10

D) 10