MODULE 4 - MB 1

A

The intensity of the pharmacological

action of the drug is most dependent on

____________.

A. Concentration of the drug at the

receptor site.

B. Elimination half-life (t1⁄2)

C. Onset time of the drug after oral

administration.

D. Protein binding

B

True for an antagonist:

I. No affinity

II. No intrinsic activity

III.Initiates biological response

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. II & III

D

When a drug has narrow therapeutic index,

it indicates that a drug is

A. More potent

B. Less potent

C. More safe

D. Less safe

A

If 1 mg of lorazepam produces the same

anxiolytic response as 10 mg of diazepam,

which is correct?

A. Lorazepam is more potent than

diazepam.

B. Lorazepam is more efficacious than

diazepam.

C. Lorazepam is a full agonist, and

diazepam is a partial agonist.

D. Lorazepam is a better drug to take for

anxiety than is diazepam.

B

In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam

is less efficacious at causing sedation,

regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin has no

sedative effect, even at the highest dose.

Which of the following is correct regarding

these agents?

A. Picrotoxin is a competitive antagonist.

B. Picrotoxin is a noncompetitive

antagonist.

C. Diazepam is less efficacious than

picrotoxin.

D. Diazepam is less potent than picrotoxin.

D

Which of the following describes the action

of Protamine against Heparin?

A. Physiologic antagonism

B. Competitive antagonism

C. Irreversible antagonism

D. Chemical antagonism

D

True regarding active transport:

A. Energy consuming

B. Saturable

C. Carrier-mediated

D. AOTA

A

All of the following statements regarding

drug transport are true except

A. High molecular weight drugs diffuse

across cell membrane more easily than

low molecular weight drugs.

B. Drugs bound to proteins do not easily

cross cell membranes.

C. Lipophilic drugs cross cell membranes

more easily than hydrophilic drugs.

D. Drugs may be transported by passive

diffusion, carrier-mediated, paracellular

or vesicular transports.

B

Administration of a sulfonamide antibiotic

may displace bilirubin from binding sites

on which of the following substances,

leading to passage of bilirubin into the

brain and the development of kernicterus?

A. alpha 1-acid glycoprotein

B. albumin

C. glucuronosyltransferase

D. sulfotransferase

D

All of the following statements about

plasma protein binding of a drug are true

except which one?

A. Displacement of a drug from

plasma protein binding sites results

in a transient increased volume of

distribution (VD).

B. Displacement of a drug from plasma

protein binding sites makes more free

drug available for glomerular filtration.

C. Albumin is the major protein involved in

protein binding of drugs.

D. Drugs that are highly bound to plasma

proteins generally have a greater VD

compared with drugs that are highly

bound to tissue proteins.

B

Food delays gastric emptying time. What

effect does this have on absorption of orally

administered drugs?

A. Increased absorption

B. Decreased absorption

C. Increased distribution

D. Decreased distribution

B

According to Biopharmaceutics

Classification System (BCS), a drug with

high solubility and low permeability

belongs to:

A. Class 4

B. Class 3

C. Class 2

D. Class 1

A

Pharmaceutical equivalent drug products

must have the same ____________.

I. Therapeutically active drug ingredients

II. Salts or ester

III.Dosage form and strength

A. I, II & III

B. I

C. II

D. III

B

Drug metabolism happens in most cases,

to convert the drug to a compound that is

____________.

I. More polar

II. More non-polar

III.More lipid-soluble

IV.More water-soluble

A. II & III

B. I & IV

C. I & III

D. II & IV

A

Pathway of drug biotransformation where

it introduces or exposes a functional group

on the drug molecules

A. Phase 1

B. Phase 2

C. Conjugation

D. B & C

B

Isoniazid undergoes what type of

conjugation reaction?

A. Glycine Conjugation

B. Acetylation

C. Glucuronidation

D.Methylation

B

Chloramphenicol is considered to

be toxic in infants. This is due to

tissue accumulation of unchanged

chloramphenicol, resulting from an

immature metabolic pathway. Which of

the following enzymes would most likely

be deficient?

A. Sulfotransferase

B. Glucuronosyltransferase

C. N-Acetyltransferase

D.Methyltransferase

B

Inducers:

I. Increase drug metabolizing enzymes

II. Decrease drug metabolizing enzymes

III.Increase plasma drug concentration of

another drug

IV.Decrease plasma drug concentration of

another drug

A. II & III

B. I & IV

C. I & III

D. II & IV

A

Human milk is more acidic than plasma.

Which of the following statements are true

given this condition?

I. Weak acid may diffuse into the breast

milk and ionize.

II. Weak acid may diffuse into the breast

milk and remain unionized.

III.Weak base may diffuse into the breast

milk and ionize.

IV.Weak base may diffuse into the breast

milk and remain unionized

A. II & III

B. II & IV

C. I & III

D. I & IV

A

The excretion of a weakly acidic drug is

generally more rapid in alkaline urine than

in acidic urine. This process occurs because

I. A weak acid in alkaline media will exist

primarily in its ionized form, which

cannot be reabsorbed easily.

II. A weak acid in alkaline media will exist

in its lipophilic form, which cannot be

reabsorbed easily.

III.All drugs are excreted more rapidly in an

alkaline urine.

A. I only

B. I & II

C. I & III

D. I, II, & III

D

The renal clearance of inulin is used as a

measurement of

A. Effective renal blood flow

B. Intrinsic enzyme activity

C. Active renal secretion

D. GFR

A

A drug that will prevent the storage of

cholinergic transmitter in vesicles thereby

depleting the transmitter at the synapse.

A. Vesamicol

B. Metyrosine

C. Reserpine

D. Botox

D

This drug inhibits the release of

acetylcholine. Has cosmetic use and

is particularly important in treating

strabismus and blepharospasms.

A. Vesamicol

B. Metyrosine

C. Reserpine

D. Botox

B

The only adrenoceptor that is presynaptic

in location

A. Alpha 1

B. Alpha 2

C. Beta 1

D. Beta 2

B

Ritodrine works as a tocolytic by activating

this receptor

A. Alpha 1

B. Alpha 2

C. Beta 1

D. Beta 2

B

Which of the following ingredients of a

cough and cold preparation is classified as

a decongestant?

A. Guaifenesin

B. Phenylephrine

C. Chlorpheniramine

D. Dextromethorphan

C

All of the following adverse effects are

manifestations of cholinergic agonists

except

A. Bradycardia

B. Bronchoconstriction

C. Xerostomia

D. Lacrimation

C

An indirect acting cholinomimetic used in

the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.

A. Neostigmine

B. Pyridostigmine

C. Edrophonium

D. Physostigmine

B

The following are signs and symptoms of

Organophosphate poisoning except

A. Diarrhea

B. Tachycardia

C. Miosis

D. Salivation

D

Toxicity of atropine can be managed by

giving

A. Hyoscyamine

B. Pralidoxime

C. Benztropine

D. Physostigmine

C

Most of the drugs used in the treatment

of Alzheimer's disease are designed to

produce ____________ effects.

A. Serotonergic

B. Sympathetic

C. Cholinergic

D. Dopaminergic

A

An endogenous catecholamine that is

used as the DOC for septic shock

A. NE

B. Epinephrine

C. Adrenaline

D. Isoprenaline

C

Amphetamine exemplifies the

pharmacologic mechanism of

A. ganglionic blockade

B. inhibition of transmitter release

C. facilitation of transmitter release

D. interference with vesicular storage

B

A 58-year-old white male who has a history

of essential hypertension and bronchial

asthma has recently been diagnosed with

prostatic hypertrophy. His medication

history includes the following drugs:

I. Propranolol IV. Finasteride

II. Ipratropium V. Prazosin

III.Metaproterenol

Which agent would be most likely to cause

postural hypotension?

A. l

B. V

C. lll

D. l, ll, & lll

D

This dopamine 1 agonist can be used

for hypertensive emergency due to its

vasodilating effect

A. Atenolol C. Amlodipine

B. Pindolol D. Fenoldopam

C

Blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg falls

under what category of hypertension?

A. Normal

B. Prehypertension

C. Stage 1

D. Stage 2

A

James Dean went to the barangay clinic

because he had been complaining of

severe headaches, dizziness, and chest

pain. Upon examination, the doctor

diagnosed him with hypertension of

unknown cause. Patients in whom no

specific cause of hypertension can be

found are said to have:

A. Primary HTN

B. Secondary HTN

C. Tertiary HTN

D. Both A & B

A

The following can be given to patients with

hypertension and asthma except

A. Nadolol

B. Atenolol

C. Esmolol

D. Bisoprolol

B

The pharmacologic profile of carvedilol is

most similar to that of

A. Esmolol

B. Labetalol

C. Metoprolol

D. Nadolol

C

Norvasc ®

A. Losartan

B. Captopril

C. Amlodipine

D. Furosemide

C

Prodrugs except

A. Enalapril

B. Captopril

C. Ramipril

D. Fosinopril

C

Angiotensin receptor antagonists or

blockers (ARBs) are less likely to cause

angioedema and cough than the

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

(ACEI) because

A. ARBs do not contain a sulfhydryl

functional group.

B. ARBs are not administered as prodrugs.

C. ARBs do not inhibit the breakdown of

bradykinin.

D. ACEIs are more specific for inhibiting the

production of angiotensin II.

D

The following can give rise to birth defects

except

A. Lisinopril

B. Irbesartan

C. Aliskiren

D. Methyldopa

D

Which of the following antihypertensives

does not act at autonomic receptors?

A. Terazosin

B. Carvedilol

C. Clonidine

D. Hydralazine

A

Class of diuretics that commonly causes

ototoxicity.

A. Loop diuretics

B. Thiazide diuretics

C. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

D. K sparing diuretics

D

Which of the following diuretics is

contraindicated in patients with increased

calcium levels in the blood?

A. Sorbitol

B. Ethacrynic acid

C. Dorzolamide

D. Chlorthalidone

C

It interferes with collecting tubular

aldosterone-mediated sodium-potassium

exchange and may cause hyperkalemia,

gynecomastia, and menstrual irregularities.

A. Mannitol

B. Acetazolamide

C. Spironolactone

D. Indapamide

A

The principal site of action of this drug is

on the thick ascending limb of the loop of

Henle. It is useful in treating pulmonary

edema.

A. Furosemide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Spironolactone

D.Mannitol

A

Visual disturbances (yellow or green

vision), confusion, anorexia, vomiting,

atrioventricular (AV) block, and ventricular

tachycardia are adverse effects of

A. Cardiac glycosides

B. Calcium-channel blockers

C. Angiotensin-converting enzyme

inhibitors

D. Beta-Adrenergic antagonists

D

Antidote for Digoxin toxicity.

A. Digibind

B. Digoxin antibodies

C. Immune fab

D. AOTA

A

Which of the following pairings of an

unwanted effect and the causative drug

are true?

I. Headache with Nitrates

II. Cough with Irbesartan

III.Lupus-like syndrome with Hydralazine

A. I & III

B. II & III

C. I

D. I, II & III

A

Odd one out

A. Enoxaparin

B. Dabigatran

C. Desirudin

D. Apixaban

A

Close monitoring of anticoagulants is

essential to prevent life-threatening

effects such as bleeding. What should be

monitored during Heparin therapy?

A. aPTT

B. PT

C. INR

D. B and C

D

Prototype drug that prevents

thromboxane A2 formation by inhibiting

COX-1.

A. Ticlopidine

B. Clopidogrel

C. Prasugrel

D. Aspirin

B

All of the following agents have actions on

blood platelets to modify clot formation

except

A. Eptifibatide

B. Dabigatran

C. Clopidogrel

D. Dipyridamole

C

Drug of choice for hypercholesterolemia

A. Fibrates

B. Niacin

C. HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors

D. Bile Acid-Binding Resins

A

Much of the reduction in circulating LDL

during treatment with simvastatin may be

due to

A. enhanced uptake of LDL by the liver

B. upregulation of HMG-CoA reductase

C. decreased GI absorption of cholesterol

D.decreased bile acid production

C

The following can be taken any time of the

day except

A. Atorvastatin

B. Rosuvastatin

C. Pravastatin

D. Pitavastatin

C

Tyramine-containing food may cause

dangerous hypertension in patients on this

agent.

I. Tranylcypromine IV. Fluoxetine

II. Imipramine V. Phenelzine

III.Buspirone

A. l only

B. II & IV

C. l & V

D. l, ll, III, IV & V

B

A 38-year-old man has a history of affective

disorders, including schizophrenia,

depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder,

and situational anxiety. His current

medication profile includes the following

drugs:

I. Clozapine III. Buspirone

II. Fluoxetine IV. Amoxapine

Which agent is most likely being used

to treat depression and obsessive-

compulsive disorder?

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. II & IV

D

The following selectively block serotonin

transporter except

A. Paroxetine

B. Sertraline

C. Citalopram

D. Doxepine

B

Which of the following agents is not used

to treat anxiety?

A. Chlordiazepoxide

B. Thioridazine

C. Buspirone

D. Pentobarbital

A

The primary concern with opioid use

during surgical procedures and overdose

is the potential for significant respiratory

and CNS depression leading to coma. This

can be managed by the administration of

opioid antagonists such as nalbuphine.

A. First statement is correct

B. Second statement is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. Both statements are wrong

B

Which of the following drug combinations

could work cooperatively to enhance a

clinical anti-parkinsonian response?

A. Amphetamine and reserpine

B. Levodopa and carbidopa

C. Carbidopa and tolcapone

D. Amantadine and haloperidol

C

Which of the following statements are true

regarding the similarities of Phenytoin and

Phenobarbital?

I. They have anti-epileptic effects

II. They are enzyme inhibitors

III.They both have low therapeutic indices

A. I & II

B. II & III

C. I & III

D. I, II & III

C

Certain drugs are sometimes incorporated

into local anesthetic solutions to prolong

their activity and reduce their systemic

toxicity. These drugs include

I. Dobutamine

II. Phenoxybenzamine

III.Epinephrine

A. I only

B. I & II

C. III only

D. II & III

B

Which element is used in the

management of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A. Lithium

B. Gold

C. Iron

D. Mercury

A

Cold intolerance and slowing down of

metabolism are symptoms of?

A. Hypothyroidism

B. Hyperthyroidism

C. Grave's Disease

D. Thyrotoxicosis

C

All of the following can be used to treat

hypothyroidism except

A. Thyroid USP

B. Liotrix

C. Methimazole

D. Liothyronine

C

The preferred drug given in the first

trimester of pregnant patients with

hyperthyroidism

A. Methimazole

B. Carbimazole

C. Propylthiouracil (PTU)

D. Levothyroxine

B

Which of the following preparations is a

peakless insulin?

A. Insulin Lispro

B. Insulin Glargine

C. Insulin Glulisine

D. NPH Insulin

A

Which of the following insulins can be

administered intravenously?

A. regular insulin

B. isophane insulin

C. insulin glargine

D. insulin glulisine

C

Sodium-Glucose Co-Transporter 2 (SGLT2)

Inhibitors block glucose reabsorption in

the kidney thereby increasing its excretion

thru urine. The most common ADR is:

A. Lactic acidosis

B. Pancreatitis

C. UTI

D.Flatulence

D

Common ADR of alpha glucosidase

inhibitors such as Acarbose.

A. Lactic acidosis

B. Pancreatitis

C. UTI

D.Flatulence

D

The following belongs to first generation

sulfonylureas, except:

A. Tolbutamide

B. Acetohexamide

C. Tolazamide

D. Torsemide

B

Which of the following drugs block

the degradation of glucagon-like

polypeptide-1?

A. Liraglutide

B. Saxagliptin

C. Dapagliflozin

D. Glyburide

D

Which of the following classes of

compounds directly stimulates the release

of insulin from pancreatic beta cells?

A. Biguanides

B. Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

C. DPP-4 inhibitors

D. Sulfonylureas

C

Which of the following is a synthetic

analogue of human glucagon-like

polypeptide-1 that increases insulin

secretion and reduces glucagon secretion?

A. Sitagliptin

B. Empagliflozin

C. Exenatide

D. Pramlintide

B

All of the following substances are

endogenous tropic hormones secreted by

the pituitary gland except

A. Somatotropin

B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

C

Which of the following compounds is

incorrectly matched with its mechanism of

action?

A. Finasteride: inhibits 5a-reductase

B. Miglitol: inhibits a-glucosidase

C. Pioglitazone: competitively blocks the

binding of estrogens to their receptor

D. Anastrozole: inhibits aromatase

A

Which of the following compounds

is incorrectly matched with one of its

therapeutic uses?

A. Raloxifene: ovulation induction

B. Finasteride: benign prostatic hyperplasia

C. Propylthiouracil: hyperthyroidism

D. Tamoxifen: estrogen-dependent breast

cancer

B

Agents used to treat hypercalcemia

include

I. Vitamin D III. Alendronate

II. Calcitonin

A. I & II

B. II & III

C. III only

D I, II, & III

A

Which of the following drugs should

a patient avoid if he has previously

experienced an allergic type of reaction to

aspirin?

I. Naproxen III. Ketoprofen

II. Paracetamol

A. I & III

B. I & II

C. I, II & III

D. II & III

B

The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2

inhibitors have been associated with which

of the following adverse drug reactions?

A. Torsades de pointes

B. Cardiovascular thrombotic events

C. Acute liver failure

D. Churg-Strauss syndrome

C

Which of the following antigout

medications acts by decreasing serum

levels but increasing urine levels of uric

acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney

stone development?

A. Colchicine

B. Allopurinol

C. Probenecid

D. Rasburicase

A

A 22-year-old female presents with

sneezing, watery and itchy eyes, and a

runny nose. She has no significant medical

history, but she is in the midst of final

exams and must remain alert. What would

be the best recommendation for her

symptoms?

A. Fexofenadine

B. Diphenhydramine

C. Brompheniramine

D. Promethazine

C

A leukotriene modifier that inhibits the

action of 5-lipoxygenase.

A. Cromolyn

B. Zafirlukast

C. Zileuton

D. Montelukast

A

Which corticosteroid is most appropriate

to administer to a woman in preterm labor

to accelerate fetal lung maturation?

A. Betamethasone

B. Prednisolone

C. Hydrocortisone

D. Prednisone

B

Which of the following prostaglandin

analogs is used specifically for the

treatment of glaucoma?

A. Alprostadil

B. Latanoprost

C. Dinoprostone

D. Epoprostenol

A

This prostaglandin analog is an

abortifacient but can also be used to

manage NSAID-induced peptic ulcers.

A. Misoprostol

B. Dinoprostone

C. Epoprostenol

D. Latanoprost

C

Which of the antacids below causes

diarrhea?

A. Aluminum hydroxide

B. Calcium carbonate

C. Magnesium hydroxide

D. Sodium bicarbonate

C

Which of the following drugs, based on

its mechanism of action, is effective in

treating diarrhea-predominant irritable

bowel syndrome (IBS)?

A. Misoprostol

B. Naratriptan

C. Alosetron

D. Rabeprazole

C

Which of the following is the main physical

hazard when administering parenteral

drugs with vesicant properties?

A. Hypothermia

B. Air embolism

C. Extravasation

D. Thrombosis

C

Aldrich-Mees lines are a sign of what

poisoning?

A. Vanadium

B. Phosphorus

C. Arsenic

D. Nickel

D

Antidote for Lead poisoning

A. BAL

B. Penicillamine

C. Deferoxamine

D. EDTA

B

What chemical antidote is best given for

Wilson's disease?

A. BAL

B. Penicillamine

C. Deferoxamine

D. EDTA

D

Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to

the formation of

A. Carbonic acid

B. Methanal

C. Lactic acid

D.Formic acid

A

A healthy 2-year-old boy ingested one of

his mother's 2 mg clonazepam tablets

1 hour ago. The child presented to the

emergency department with CNS

depression but a normal heart rate and

blood pressure. His bedside glucose check

is also normal. Which antidote might be

helpful?

A. Flumazenil

B. Naloxone

C. Physostigmine

D. Fomepizole

B

Cyanide intoxication is best managed by

which drug?

A. Amyl nitrite

B. Hydroxocobalamin

C. Phytonadione

D. Glucagon

A

Toxic metabolite of acetaminophen which

causes hepatotoxicity

A. NAPQI

B. Acetylcysteine

C. Glutathione

D. Phenacetin