T21 - Viral drug

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1
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What is the fundamental pharmacological property of antiviral drugs regarding their action on latent viruses?

They are virustatic

2
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What host factor remains essential for recovery from viral infections despite antiviral therapy?

Host immunity

3
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Why do many antiviral drugs require intracellular modifications before they become active?

They are prodrugs requiring phosphorylation

4
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Which type of viral genome does Hepatitis C possess?

RNA

5
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Which type of viral genome does Hepatitis B possess?

DNA

6
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Which type of viral genome do Influenza A and B possess?

RNA

7
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Which type of viral genome does HIV possess?

RNA

8
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Which type of viral genome does SARS-CoV-2 possess?

RNA

9
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What step of the viral life cycle is blocked by maraviroc?

Viral attachment and entry

10
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What step of the viral life cycle is blocked by enfuvirtide?

Viral attachment and entry

11
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What step of the viral life cycle is blocked by amantadine?

Uncoating

12
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What step of the viral life cycle is blocked by integrase inhibitors?

Integration into genome

13
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What step of the viral life cycle is blocked by oseltamivir?

Viral release

14
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What step of the viral life cycle is blocked by nirmatrelvir?

Protein processing

15
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What step of the viral life cycle is blocked by baloxavir?

Nucleic acid synthesis

16
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Which influenza types are susceptible to adamantanes?

Influenza A only

17
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Which influenza types are susceptible to baloxavir?

Influenza A and B

18
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Which influenza types are susceptible to oseltamivir?

Influenza A and B

19
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What is the mechanism of action of amantadine?

M2 ion channel blocker

20
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Why are adamantanes no longer recommended for influenza treatment?

Greater than 99% resistance

21
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What is a major contraindication for the use of amantadine?

Pregnancy

22
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What is the primary central nervous system adverse effect of amantadine?

Insomnia, dizziness, confusion, or seizures

23
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What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir?

Neuraminidase inhibitor

24
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What is the administration route for oseltamivir?

Oral

25
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What is the administration route for zanamivir?

Oral inhalation

26
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What is the administration route for peramivir?

Intravenous

27
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What is the most common adverse effect of oseltamivir?

Nausea and vomiting

28
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What is a major contraindication for the use of zanamivir?

Asthma or COPD

29
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Which neuraminidase inhibitor is preferred for pregnant or hospitalised patients?

Oseltamivir

30
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What is the specific molecular target of baloxavir marboxil?

Cap-dependent endonuclease

31
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Which viral kinase is responsible for the initial phosphorylation of acyclovir?

Herpes thymidine kinase

32
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How does acyclovir achieve selective toxicity?

Monophosphate forms only in infected cells

33
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What is the mechanism of action of acyclovir triphosphate?

Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor and chain terminator

34
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What is the most common mechanism of HSV resistance to acyclovir?

Thymidine kinase deficiency or alteration

35
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What is the pharmacokinetic advantage of valacyclovir over acyclovir?

Higher oral bioavailability

36
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What is the primary indication for intravenous acyclovir?

HSV encephalitis or severe disseminated disease

37
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What is the primary indication for oral acyclovir or valacyclovir?

Genital herpes, herpes zoster, and varicella

38
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What is the primary renal adverse effect of intravenous acyclovir?

Crystal nephropathy

39
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What neurotoxic adverse effects are associated with acyclovir in the setting of renal impairment?

Confusion, tremor, or seizures

40
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Which viral kinase activates ganciclovir in CMV-infected cells?

CMV UL97 kinase

41
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What is the mechanism of action of ganciclovir?

Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor

42
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What is the oral prodrug formulation of ganciclovir?

Valganciclovir

43
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What are the primary clinical indications for ganciclovir?

CMV retinitis, colitis, pneumonitis, and pre-emptive therapy in transplants

44
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What is the primary dose-limiting adverse effect of ganciclovir?

Myelosuppression

45
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Why is the co-administration of ganciclovir and zidovudine generally avoided?

Additive bone marrow toxicity

46
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What is the most common mechanism of CMV resistance to ganciclovir?

UL97 kinase mutation

47
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What is the mechanism of action of foscarnet?

Direct DNA polymerase inhibitor

48
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Does foscarnet require activation by viral kinases?

No

49
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What is the primary indication for foscarnet?

Acyclovir-resistant HSV or ganciclovir-resistant CMV

50
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What is the major dose-limiting toxicity of foscarnet?

Nephrotoxicity and electrolyte imbalances

51
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What is the mechanism of action of cidofovir?

DNA polymerase inhibitor

52
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Does cidofovir require activation by viral kinases?

No

53
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What medication must be co-administered with cidofovir to prevent nephrotoxicity?

Probenecid

54
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What is the primary indication for letermovir?

CMV prophylaxis in transplant patients

55
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What is the specific viral target of maribavir?

UL97 kinase

56
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What is the therapeutic goal for chronic Hepatitis B infection?

Long-term viral suppression

57
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What is the therapeutic goal for chronic Hepatitis C infection?

Cure (sustained virological response)

58
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What viral target is inhibited by HCV drugs with the suffix "-previr"?

NS3/4A protease

59
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What viral target is inhibited by HCV drugs with the suffix "-asvir"?

NS5A replication complex

60
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What viral target is inhibited by HCV drugs with the suffix "-buvir"?

NS5B polymerase

61
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What are the preferred first-line nucleos(t)ide analogues for chronic HBV?

Tenofovir and Entecavir

62
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What is the mechanism of action of tenofovir against HBV?

Reverse transcriptase inhibitor

63
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What is the major renal adverse effect associated with tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF)?

Renal tubulopathy (Fanconi syndrome)

64
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What is the pharmacokinetic advantage of tenofovir alafenamide (TAF) over TDF?

Less renal and bone toxicity

65
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What is a significant risk of abruptly stopping nucleos(t)ide analogue therapy in HBV patients?

Severe hepatitis flare

66
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What is the mechanism of action of ribavirin?

Inhibits IMPDH

67
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What is the primary dose-dependent adverse effect of ribavirin?

Haemolytic anaemia

68
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What is a major absolute contraindication for the use of ribavirin?

Pregnancy

69
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What is the mechanism of action of pegylated interferon-alpha?

Binds IFNAR to activate JAK-STAT pathway

70
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What are the prominent psychiatric adverse effects of interferon-alpha?

Depression and suicidality

71
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What is a major absolute contraindication for interferon-alpha therapy in liver disease?

Decompensated cirrhosis

72
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What are the two primary cellular co-receptors for HIV entry?

CCR5 and CXCR4

73
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Which viral envelope glycoprotein mediates HIV attachment to CD4?

gp120

74
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Which viral envelope glycoprotein mediates HIV fusion with the host cell membrane?

gp41

75
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What is the mechanism of action of maraviroc?

CCR5 antagonist

76
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What pre-treatment testing is mandatory before initiating maraviroc?

Tropism test

77
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What is the mechanism of action of enfuvirtide?

Fusion inhibitor

78
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What is the mechanism of action of fostemsavir?

gp120 attachment inhibitor

79
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What is the mechanism of action of ibalizumab?

Monoclonal antibody against CD4

80
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What is the mechanism of action of Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)?

Competitive inhibition and chain termination

81
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Do NRTIs require intracellular activation?

Yes, they require three phosphorylations by host kinases

82
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What mandatory screening test is required before prescribing abacavir?

HLA-B*5701 testing

83
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What is the classic adverse effect of zidovudine (AZT)?

Macrocytic anaemia and myelosuppression

84
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What is the mechanism of action of Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)?

Allosteric inhibition

85
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Do NNRTIs require intracellular activation?

No

86
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What is the mechanism of action of Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)?

Chelate Mg2+ in integrase active site

87
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What suffix identifies integrase strand transfer inhibitors?

"-tegravir"

88
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Which integrase inhibitor requires boosting with cobicistat?

Elvitegravir

89
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What is the mechanism of action of HIV protease inhibitors?

Prevent cleavage of Gag/Gag-Pol polyproteins

90
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What suffix identifies HIV protease inhibitors?

"-navir"

91
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What is the primary pharmacological role of ritonavir or cobicistat in modern ART?

Pharmacokinetic boosters

92
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What are the classic metabolic adverse effects of HIV protease inhibitors?

Dyslipidaemia, insulin resistance, and fat redistribution

93
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Which HIV protease inhibitor classically causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia?

Atazanavir

94
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What severe adverse effect can occur if ergotamine is co-administered with boosted protease inhibitors?

Ergotism (severe ischaemia)

95
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Why is fluticasone co-administration cautioned with boosted protease inhibitors?

Risk of iatrogenic Cushing syndrome

96
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What is the WHO preferred first-line ART regimen for most cases?

Tenofovir + Lamivudine (or Emtricitabine) + Dolutegravir

97
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What is the mechanism of action of nirmatrelvir?

3CL (main) protease inhibitor

98
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What is the mechanism of action of remdesivir?

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibitor

99
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What is the mechanism of action of molnupiravir?

Lethal mutagenesis

100
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What is a major contraindication for the use of molnupiravir?

Pregnancy or age under 18