Module 2 practice quizes

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Last updated 11:45 PM on 10/14/26
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30 Terms

1
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The ability to differentiate between antigen receptors for foreign antigens and the animal's own antigen cell is referred to as:

Immunologic tolerance

2
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Which cell type is responsible for the adaptive immune system?

lymphocytes

3
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Which type of leukocyte is active in both innate and adaptive immunity?

Neutrophils

4
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Which type of immunity allows the animal to gain resistance to disease by antibodies received from colostrum?

Passive immunity

5
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Which is the most common circulating immunoglobulin?

IgG

6
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A horse is presented to the clinic and the veterinarian is suspecting equine infectious anemia. What test should be performed to confirm this diagnosis?

cELISA

7
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What occurs when using a Snap ELISA test to indicate a positive test for an antigen?

Color appears in more than the positive control dot

8
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Which term refers to a test's ability to correctly identify all animals that are truly positive for a specific reaction procedure?

Sensitivity

9
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Which immunoassay test is the best to use when testing bovine serum for brucellosis antibodies?

cELISA

10
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Most immunoassays involve the use of whole blood as the sample (T/F)

False

11
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A minor cross-match involves mixing which two materials?

Donor serum and recipient cells

12
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If a blood Type B cat receives a blood transfusion with Type A blood, what would most likely result?

Severe reaction and death

13
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The majority of cats in the United States have what blood type?

A

14
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The card agglutination assay for blood typing requires a sample collected with:

EDTA (purple top)

15
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What happens if an animal is given a mismatched transfusion?

Antibodies form against the RBC antigens from the transfused sample

16
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What type of testing is used to diagnose allergies or allergens in the environment?

Intradermal

17
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Which antibody molecules mediate allergies, especially environmental allergens?

IgE

18
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A patient with an allergy or hypersensitivity reaction may develop hives, which are also known as:

Urticaria

19
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Hives and angioedema are reactions triggered when what type of cell releases histamine-containing granules that trigger the inflammatory response?

Basophils

20
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Which of the following is used as a negative control in allergy testing?

Saline

21
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If an antibody titer shows a high titer result, what does this indicate?

A high concentration of antibodies is present in the sample

22
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In the real-time polymerase chain reaction, which of the following statements must be true for a sample to be considered positive?

As the number of segments increase, the fluorescence increases

23
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In which test is a sample added to a test slide that has been coated with fluorescent dye-conjugated antigens and then examined with a special microscope?

Direct fluorescent antibody testing

24
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Which assay test is similar to the cELISA technique except that a radioisotope replaces the enzyme?

Radioimmunoassay

25
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This DNA test method decreases the risk of contamination and is easier to run than the traditional method

Real-time polymerase chain reaction

26
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An autoimmune response in which the body's antibodies attack its own tissues is referred as which of the following?

Hypersensitivity

27
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Another name for a Type III hypersensitivity disorder would be which of the following?

Immune complex disease

28
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A patient shows evidence of hypersensitivity and the immune system shows a lack of phagocytes. In which of the following disorders are these characteristics?

Combined immunodeficiency

29
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Which immune system disease is characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of lymphocytes?

Lymphoma

30
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An animal is diagnosed with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia. What type of hypersensitivity disorder is IMHA?

Type II