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Which are antiplatelet drugs?
1. Aspirin
2. Plavix (clopidogrel)
3. Effient (prasugrel)
4. Brilinta (ticagrelor)
5. Kengreal (cangrelor)
6. Integrilin (eptifibatde)
7. Aggrastat (tirofiban)
Which are the anticoagulant drugs?
1. Unfractionated heparin
2. Fragmin (dalteparin)
3. Lovenox (enoxaparin)
4. Arixtra (fondaparinux)
5. Argatroban
6. Angiomax (bivalirudin)
7. Coumadin (warfarin)
8. Eliquis (apixaban)
9. Pradaxa (dabigatran)
10. Savaysa (edoxaban)
11. Xarelto (rivaroxaban)
Which are the Fibrinolytic Drugs?
- Activase (alteplase)
- TNKase (tenecteplase)
Aspirin inhibits ____ to decrease production of thromboxane A₂.
COX-1
Aspirin is hydrolyzed to ____
salicylic acid
Aspirin's platelet inhibition lasts ____ to ____ days.
7; 10
Aspirin's inhibition of platelet function is ____.
irreversible
Aspirin does not require laboratory monitoring but should be monitored for signs of ____.
bleeding
Aspirin is indicated for the primary and secondary prevention of ____.
ACS
The most common adverse effect of aspirin is ____
GI bleeding.
_______ compete for the same spot as Aspirin and should be avoided post ACS
NSAIDs
If a patient NEEDS to take an NSAID take either with aspirin _______ prior to NSAID or take aspirin __________ after taking NSAID
- 60 minutes
- 8 hours
Clopidogrel prevents binding of ____ to the P2Y12 receptor.
ADP
Clopidogrel is a ____ that requires CYP activation.
prodrug
The primary CYP enzyme activating clopidogrel is ____.
CYP2C19
Clopidogrel requires a loading dose of ________ in the setting of ACS and maintenance dose of __________
300-600 mg PO
75 mg PO
Clopidogrel is used for ___________
ACS and secondary prevention of ACS.
Clopidogrel is preferred in patients allergic to ________.
aspirin
Prasugrel is a ____ that requires hepatic activation via CYP.
prodrug
Prasugrel is contraindicated in patients with a history of _________
stroke or TIA
Prasugrel's active metabolite is the same as clopidogrel but requires no ____ testing.
pharmacogenomic
Prasugrel in the setting of ACS requires a Loading dose of _________
60 mg PO
Prasugrel's maintenance dose depends on body weight and age
10 mg PO daily if body weight ≥ 60 kg and age < 75 years.
5 mg PO daily if body weight < 60 kg or age ≥ 75 years (use caution).
Ticagrelor is a ____ inhibitor of the P2Y12 receptor.
reversible
Ticagrelor and its metabolite are both ____.
active
Ticagrelor should be avoided with aspirin doses above ____
100 mg
Ticagrelor inhibits ____ reuptake into red blood cells.
adenosine
Ticagrelor can cause ____ as a side effect.
dyspnea
Ticagrelor can increase serum _____________
creatinine and uric acid levels.
Ticagrelor loading dose is ________, and maintenance dose is __________
180 mg PO daily
90 mg PO BID
Cangrelor is administered via the ____ route.
IV
Cangrelor platelet inhibition occurs ________.
only during the infusion
Cangrelor is indicated for _____________.
acute management of ACS
If a patient is on a P2Y12 inhibitor, and they are going to have a surgery, they should hod Ticagrelor for _______, Clopidogrel for ________, and Prasugrel for _______.
Tica: 5 days
Clopi: 7 days
Prasu: 9 days
Tirofiban and Eptifibatide prevent binding of fibrinogen to the _______
GPIIb/IIIa receptor
Eptifibatide is administered as ___________
an IV bolus followed by a continuous infusion
Eptifibatide requires dose reduction if CrCl is less than ____ mL/min.
50
Eptifibatide may cause ____ as an adverse effect.
thrombocytopenia
Tirofiban and Eptifibatide monitoring includes ___________.
aPTT, ACT, platelets, and SCr
Tirofiban is not a ____ (unlike eptifibatide).
peptide
Tirofiban requires dose reduction if CrCl is less than ____ mL/min.
60
Anti-Xa levels are only going to be required for special populations such as
1. Renal dysfunction
2. Pregnancy
3. Obesity
Which are the anticoagulants that require anti-Xa monitoring?
1. Unfractionated Heparin
2. Low Molecular Weight Heparins
3. Fondaparinux
4. Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs)
Unfractionated heparin binds antithrombin III to inactivate ____
thrombin and Factor Xa.
Heparin absorption is ____ when given IV, and ____ when given SC
complete; unpredictable
Heparin is cleared by the _________, and is a saturable process. After is saturated is cleared by __________
reticuloendothelial system; renal system
Enoxaparin binds antithrombin III to inactivate ____.
Factor Xa
Low Molecular weigh heparins include:
1. Enoxaparin (Levonox)
2. Dalteparin (Fragmin)
Dalteparin binds antithrombin III to inactivate ______.
Factor Xa
Dalteparin is indicated for management of ACS and ____.
ACS and VTE
Arixtra (fondaparinux) binds ATIII and inhibits ____.
Factor Xa
Fondaparinux is contraindicated in patients with a CrCl< _________
30 ml/min
Fondaparinux should not be used as __________
monotherapy
Fondaparinux is less likely to cause ____ than heparin.
HIT
Fondaparinux is indicated for ________.
ACS and VTE
Fondaparinux is the most specific for inhibition of ____.
Factor Xa
Argatroban binds to _______ to inactivate it.
free and clot-bound thrombin
Argatroban is administered by the ____ route.
IV
Argatroban is excreted primarily via the ____ system, therefore needs dose adjustment in patients with ____________
biliary; hepatic impairment
Bivalirudin and Argatroban require monitoring of ________.
aPTT and activated clotting time
Which is the drug of choice when a patient develops HIT?
Argatroban
Bivalirudin (Angiomax) binds to ______ to inactivate it.
free and clot-bound thrombin
Bivalirudin is administered via the ____ route.
IV
Bivalirudin dose must be reduced in patients with ___________
renal impairment
Bivalirudin is indicated for _______.
ACS and HIT
Bivalirudin is used in patients with ______
high-bleeding risk
Warfarin inhibits synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors _____, and proteins ______.
- factors II, VII, IX, and X (2, 7, 9, 10)
- proteins C and S
Warfarin inhibits the enzyme ____.
VKORC1
Warfarin is absorbed ____ with complete bioavailability.
orally
Warfarin metabolism occurs via hepatic ____.
CYP2C9
Warfarin half-life ranges from ____ to ____ hours.
20; 60
Warfarin monitoring is performed using the ____.
INR
Warfarin is indicated for prevention and treatment of ____ and ____.
VTE; AF
The ___-isomer of warfarin is more than the ___-isomer.
S>R
Dabigatran inhibits free and clot-bound thrombin ____________
directly
Dabigatran is a ____ hydrolyzed to its active form.
prodrug
Dabigatran requires dose adjustment in __________
renal impairment
Dabigatran requires monitoring of ____.
SCr
Dabigatran is a substrate for ____.
P-glycoprotein
Dabigatran is indicated for prevention and treatment of ____ and ____.
VTE; AF
________ selectively inhibits free and clot-bound factor Xa, while _____and ____ selectively inhibit only FREE Factor Xa
- Apixaban (eliquis)
- Edoxaban (Savaysa)
- Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
Apixaban is metabolized primarily by hepatic ____.
CYP3A4
Apixaban, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban monitoring require monitoring of ____.
SCr
Apixaban and Edoxaban are more commonly used for
AFib
Edoxaban shouldn't be used if CrCl ________
>95 ml/min
In patients with very efficient kidneys (high CrCl), edoxaban can be ____.
ineffective
Rivaroxaban bioavailability increases when ____.
taken with food (except for 10 mg dose)
Rivaroxaban is dosed once daily except when treating, where it is dosed ____ for the first 3 weeks.
acute DVT ; BID
Fibrinolytic drugs are used only for ____
ST-segment elevated MI (STEMI)
Fibrinolytic drugs are also used in management of ____, and all available drugs are ______
pulmonary embolism; IV
_________ is used for both STEMI & PE, while ____ is used only in STEMI
Alteplase (activase)
Tenecteplase (TNKase)
Fibrinolytics should not be used in ____.
NSTEMI
Alteplase & Tenecteplase convert plasminogen to ____ to lyse fibrin.
plasmin
Alteplase is given as a bolus dose followed by an ____.
infusion
Alteplase & Tenecteplase require monitoring of __________
aPTT and thrombin time
Tenecteplase is not indicated for treatment of ____.
PE