Vani’s Exam 2 Practice Questions

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70 Terms

1
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Which of the following are relatively cardio-selective beta-1 blockers?

  1. Atenolol

  2. Propranolol

  3. Esmolol

  4. Metoprolol

  5. Sotalol


1, 3, and 4

2
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Which tetracycline is a good treatment for Moraxella bovis (pink eye) and foot rot?

Oxytetracycline

3
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What tetracyclines is being more commonly used for Anaplasmosis in beef cattle that should require a VFD?

Chlortetracycline

4
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Which statements about canine and feline diabetes are correct?

  1. Canine diabetes is generally persistently insulin dependent

  2. Some cats can regain sufficient beta-cell function for remission

  3. Obesity can contribute to feline insulin resistance

  4. Every diabetic dog has proven immune-mediated beta-cell destruction

  5. Pancreatic alpha cells produce insulin


1, 2, and 3

5
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Which of the following can be used in combination with local anesthetics to delay removal of the anesthetic from its injection site? The drug causes vasoconstriction to slow absorption and prolong the sensory effects caused by the local anesthetic.

Epinephrine

6
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Which statements about the classic clinical signs of diabetes are correct?

  1. Excessive thirst is a classic clinical sign

  2. Excessive urination can result from glucose-associated osmotic diuresis

  3. The absence of polyphasic excludes diabetes in a sick patient

  4. Increased appetite can occur despite weight loss

  5. Proteinemia is one of the classic diabetic signs


1, 2, and 4

7
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A cat with uncontrolled diabetes signs that have been consistent for the last 6 months is brought to the clinic by its owner to establish a treatment plan. You advise Glargine because it is always your first choice in nearly diagnosed feline patients.

False

8
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Which statement accurately describes suldadimethoxine?

It is Albon and may be used alone or potentiated with ormetoprim

9
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A dog develops acute respiratory difficulty and hypotension after an injection. Anaphylaxis is suspected. Which sequence places the first-line emergency drug before possible adjunctive medications?

Epinephrine, then diphenhydramine (Benadryl), then dexamethasone is indicated

10
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Which of the following is not a third generation cephalosporin?

Cefaclor

11
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A dog has clinically important vagally mediated bradycardia. Atropine is selected. Which receptor action explains its effect

Competitive blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

12
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If a patient has accidentally overdosed on insulin and you need to administer a substance that is antagonistic to the effects of insulin what would you reach for?

Glucagon

13
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Which statements about dopamine and dobutamine are correct?

  1. Higher-dose dopamine can increase vascular resistance through alpha effects.

  2. Dobutamine predominantly stimulates beta-1 mediated contractility

  3. Dopamine’s receptor effects vary with infusion dose

  4. Dopamine acts only on dopamine receptors at every dose

  5. Short duration supports titration by continuous infusion


1, 2, 3, and 5

14
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Certain alpha 2 receptor agonist drugs (xylazine, detomidine, dexmetatomidine, medetomidine) are profoundly sympatholytic and can decrease cardiac output by 50%. What species have more alpha 2d subtypes within their CNS and thus don’t tolerate these medication very well?

Cattle

15
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Which statements about tetracycline action and interactions are correct?

  1. Their principal action is inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking

  2. Tetracyclines bind the bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit

  3. They are generally bacteriostatic

  4. Deposition in developing teeth and bone is an important age-related concern

  5. Iron and magnesium products can also interfere with absorption

  6. Calcium-containing milk reliably improves absorption of older tetracyclines


2, 3, 4, and 5

16
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Which statements about antisepsis and infection-risk classification are correct?

  1. A scalpel entering sterile tissue is a critical item

  2. Disinfectants are defined by their routine application to living tissue

  3. Virikon is an oxidizing disinfectant formulation

  4. A visibly clean critical instrument needs only surface disinfection

  5. Antiseptics are intended for use on living tissue


1, 3, and 5

17
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What beta lactamase inhibitor is notoriously unstable and should be protected from moisture?

Clavulanic acid

18
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Which statements about Cholinergic drugs and toxicity are correct?

  1. Atropine directly reverses skeletal-muscle nicotinic weakness

  2. Neostigmine and physostigmine are organophosphate inhibitors

  3. The L in SLUD refers to lacrimation

  4. Dichlorvos is an organophosphate acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

  5. Muscle fascinations can persist after secretions improve with atropine


3, 4, and 5

19
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Which of the following is an oxidizing compound?

Virkon

20
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Mannheima haemolytica, histophilus somni, and Pasturella multicida are all gram negative bacteria that can contribute to bovine respiratory disease. What generation of cephalosporin would be used to treat this?

Third

21
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Which of the following is particularly useful for treating anaerobic infections in dogs & cats, especially those in the oral cavity?

Clavamox

22
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Which statements about tetracycline administration are correct?

  1. Rapid IV Oxytetracycline can cause cardiovascular collapse

  2. A slow equine oxytetracycline protocol can be applied unchanged to doxycycline

  3. A doxycycline tablet retained in a cat’s esophagus can cause injury

  4. Doxycycline and minocycline have relatively good tissue penetration

  5. A human IV doxycycline formulation makes IV use safe in horses


1, 3, and 4

23
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Which statements about cephalosporins and formulations are correct?

  1. Cefepime is forth generation and has antipseudomonal activity

  2. Cefovacin is an oral product selected for its rapid elimination

  3. Cefazolin is an injectable first generation cephalosporin

  4. Ceftazidime has an activity against susceptible Pseudomonas isolates.

  5. Cefpodoximine is an oral third-generation cephalosporin

  6. Cefpodoxime and Cefazolin are both oral first-generation agents


1, 3, 4, and 5

24
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A spayed dog leaks urine while resting. Testing supports urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence. How does phenylpropanolamine (PPA) help?

It stimulates alpha-adrenergic activity to increase urethral sphincter tone

25
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Doxycycline is the TCN least affected by chelation, thus having better PO absorption than other TCNs.

True

26
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A cat comes to the clinic with a raised BG and the owner is worried about DM and is trying to catch the problem early. They express they just moved houses and the owner doesn’t have a fridge to store the insulin in. What product do you recommend?

None

27
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Sulfa drugs can alter TSH levels in dogs and thus they appear hyperthyroid.

False

28
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Which preparation is traditionally used as an antiseptic for a calf’s umbilicus?

7% iodine tincture

29
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Patient A needs increased cardiac contractility with relatively little direct vasoconstriction. Patient B develops increasing vascular resistance as its dopamine dose rises. Which pairing best explains these findings?

A: dobutamine with predominant beta-1 inotropy; B: greater alpha-mediated effects of higher-dose dopamine

30
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Which statements about maintenance-insulin preferences in cats are correct?

  1. Lantus (glargine) is listed first

  2. NPH is listed ahead of PZI

  3. PZI is listed second

  4. Humulin R is the first-choice maintenance insulin in this ranking

  5. NPH is listed third


1, 3, and 5

31
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Flo-Collin and Durapen are brand names of what penicillin formulation?

Natural penicillin and benzathine

32
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Which statements about maintenance-insulin preferences in dogs are correct?

1, 3, and 5

33
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Cefpodoxime, cefadroxil, and cephalexin are all oral formulations.

True

34
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An English Bulldog has recurrent syncope associated with ventricular tachyarrhythmias on Holter monitoring. Which listed oral drug combines beta blockade with class III activity for ongoing rhythm control?

Sotalol

35
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Which statements about the insulin products and dosing instructions are correct?

  1. A U-40 and a U-100 syringe deliver equal volumes at the same unit marking

  2. Vetsulin is the trade name for a U-100 glargine

  3. Writing q12h is clearer than an unspecified twice daily instruction

  4. Glargine U-100 is commonly administered SC every 12 hours to cats

  5. Lantus U-100 contains insulin glargine at 100 units/mL


3, 4, and 5

36
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Minocycline and Doxycycline are the least lipophilic classes of TCNs.

False

37
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Which drug would be best suited against Pseudomonas infection?

Zosyn

38
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Which of the following is derived from pigs?

Vetsulin

39
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Cefazolin is primarily an oral medication.

False

40
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Which of the following is not a U-100 product?

Vetsulin

41
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Antipseudomonas penicillins are not susceptible to inactivation by beta lactamases.

False

42
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Antiseptics are intended for living tissue, whereas disinfectants are generally intended for inanimate surfaces.

True

43
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Albuterol is the beta blocker DOC for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

False

44
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Glucocorticoids are frequently administered alongside insulin in DM patients as these medications have synergistic properties

False

45
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A horse with spasmodic colic receives Buscopan alongside flunixin. Which statements about Buscopan, colic, and equine asthma are correct?

  1. Buscopan reduces intestinal smooth-muscle spasm by blocking muscarinic receptors

  2. Buscopan produces it effects by stimulating beta-2 receptors

  3. Buscospan can relieve pain associated with spasmodic equine colic

  4. With fluixin in a colic plan, Buscopan and flunixin act through different mechanisms

  5. Buscopan can provide temporary bronchodilation in a horse with severe asthma

  6. Buscopan is an NSAID that replaces long-term anti-inflammatory treatment for asthma


1, 3, 4, and 5

46
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Which of the following irreversibly binds acetylcholinesterase?

Dichlorvos

47
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Penicillins and cephalosporins kill in a time-dependent manner.

True

48
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Which statements about adrenergic bronchodilators are correct?

  1. Beta blockade enhances the intended effect of albuterol

  2. Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist

  3. Albuterol is commonly used for rescue bronchodilation

  4. Clenbuterol has a shorter duration than albuterol

  5. Clenbuterol is also a beta-2 agonist


2, 3, and 5

49
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Which statements about alpha antagonists and reversal are correct?

  1. Antisedan is a brand names for atipamezole

  2. Atipamezole directly reverses ketamine given in the same protocol

  3. Reversal can remove alpha-2 mediated analgesia as well as sedation

  4. Prazosin is the selective reversal drug for dexmetatomadine

  5. Atipamezole reverses dexmedetomidine-mediated effects


1, 3, and 5

50
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Bexacat can be used in all diabetic feline patients (Type I and Type II).

False

51
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Infections caused by pseudomonas should likely be treated with a cephalosporin from what generation?

Third

52
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Injectable sulfas should always be given IV.

True

53
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Which mechanism explains the mainly bacteriostatic action of tetracyclines?

Binding the 30S subunit and interfering with aminoacyl-tRNA attachment

54
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What is the very common opthalmic indicator of diabetes in dogs?

Cataracts

55
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Phenoxybenzamine irreversibly blocks alpha receptors. Which listed drugs are more selective alternatives for reducing excessive urinary-outflow resistance?

  1. Prazosin

  2. Phenylpropanolamine

  3. Tamsulosin

  4. Phenylephrine

  5. Propranolol


1 and 3

56
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Piperacillin can be used to treat CNS infections.

False

57
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Which statements about alpha-2 agonists are correct?

  1. Bradycardia can accompany reduced cardiac output

  2. Peripheral alpha-2 activation can produce vasoconstriction

  3. Sedation requires activation of peripheral beta-2 receptors

  4. Dexmedetomidine can produce sedation and analgesia

  5. Cattle require the same xylazine dose as horses


1, 2, and 4

58
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You have articulated a 14 day treatment protocol for a dog with atopic dermatitis due to staphylococcus bacteria, the prescribed medication is cloxacillin TID. The owner is going on vacation in 10 days and the pet sitter won’t be able to administer the medication. This is okay because the treatment course is 70% complete and the dog’s condition will be noticeable improved at the point of discontinuation of the medication.

False

59
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Which of the following is part of the combination drug known as SMZ/TMP 960?

Sulfamethoxazole

60
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Which statements about intramammary cefapirin products are correct?

  1. Cefa-dri is interchangeable with Cefa-Lak during lactation

  2. An identical active-drug name guarantees identical withdrawal instructions

  3. Cefa-Lak is intended for lactating cows

  4. Cefa-Dri is intended for dry cows

  5. The dry-cow and lactating products should be stored separately


3, 4, and 5

61
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Which of the following is not an antibiotic?

Sulfasalazine

62
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Cilastatin is a beta lactamase inhibitor.

False

63
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Which statements about adrenergic agonists and antagonists are correct?

  1. Esmolol and metoprolol are relatively beta-1 selective

  2. Nonselective beta blockage can oppose beta-2 mediated bronchodilation

  3. Atenolol is relatively beta-1 selective

  4. Propranolol selectively blocks beta-1 receptors

  5. Albuterol is a beta blocker used to suppress bronchoconstriction


1, 2, and 3

64
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Which of the following would be best to use dor treating skin & soft-tissue infections due to Streptococcus equi in equine species?

Trimethoprim-Sulfadiazine combo (Equisul)

65
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Which statements about cardiac and respiratory adrenergic drugs are correct?

  1. Esmolol is a relatively beta-1 selective blocker

  2. The documented rhythm helps guide treatment of a syncopal boxer

  3. Sotalol combines beta blockade with class III anti-arrhythmic activity

  4. Atenolol and Sotalol have identical receptor selectivity and channel effects

  5. Albuterol decreases contractility by antagonizing beta-1 receptors


1, 2, and 3

66
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Which statements about sulfonamides and potentiated sulfonamides are correct?

  1. They can be used for urinary tact infections by susceptible organisms

  2. They can be potentiated with trimethoprim or ormetoprim

  3. They do not provide reliable activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  4. They are effective against all respiratory infections, including pneumonia

  5. Adequate hydration is unnecessary during treatment

  6. They can disrupt thyroid function and produce a hypothyroid pattern in dogs


1, 2, 3, and 6

67
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What kind of treatment would you be using to manage DKA in a dog who arrives at the clinic having a complete lack of insulin-hyperglycemic (BG: 800), very ill with profuse vomiting/diarrhea, dehydration and electrolyte imbalance?

Humulin R and equal parts normal saline + dextrose 5%

68
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The drug Unasyn is a combination of beta lactamase inhibitor sulbactam with a penicillin belonging to which of the following categories?

Aminopenicillins

69
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Which statements about aminopenicillins and their combinations are correct?

  1. Clavamox combines amoxicillin with with clavulanic acid

  2. A beta-lactamse inhibitor restores activity against every resistant isolate

  3. Amoxicillin and ampicillin are aminopenicillins

  4. Unasyn combines ampicillin with sulbactam

  5. Oral ampicillin generally has higher bioavailability than oral amoxicillin


1, 3, and 4

70
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All penicillins rely on renal elimination (primarily tubular secretion) and reach high drug concentrations in the urine.

True