CST - NBSTSA app exams

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Last updated 7:24 PM on 10/12/26
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257 Terms

1
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Tympanosplasty

Surgical operation performed for the reconstruction of the eardrum (tympanic membrane) and/or small bones of the middle ear (ossicles)

2
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After gowning and gloving, a surgeon activates the Duraprep applicator and proceeds to prep the patient for surgery. What is the best action to take at this time?

Regown and reglove the surgeon

3
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What position is used for a pneumonectomy?

Lateral

4
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What is the kraske position?

Anatomical position in which the patient is prone, with hips flexed and elevated, head and feet down.

5
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Which position is correct for a dilation and curettage?

Lithotomy

6
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When a hernia is strangulated, which instrument set is added to the general abdominal set-up?

Gastrointestinal

7
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What is a fenestrated drape?

A drape with an opening that allows exposure of the operative site

8
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Sterile supplies and instruments for a case have been opened in OR one. A surgical technologist was just informed that the case has been moved to OR two and the next case in OR one is scheduled in two hours. What is the best course of action?

New sterile supplies and instruments should be obtained for OR two and the setup in OR one should be disposed of

9
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What is the first step in applying the pneumatic tourniquet necessary in creating a bloodless field?

Padding the area where the tourniquet is to be wrapped with Webril

10
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For a splenectomy procedure, which clamp should be used?

Satinsky

11
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Surgical loupes are used to:

Magnify the surgical field

12
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Which position is the patient placed in for a right nephrectomy?

Left lateral kidney

13
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Once a surgical technologist dons a gown, the cuffs on the gown are considered unsterile because they are:

Absorbant and collect moisture

14
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Instruments that come in contact with the appendiceal stump during an appendectomy should be:

Placed in a separate bin

15
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Which instrument is used to cross-clamp the intestine during a bowel resection?

Allen

16
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The primary purpose of chest tubes is to:

Re-establish the negative pressure

17
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Traction sutures are used on common duct explorations to:

Hold the duct open

18
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The appendiceal stump, when inverted, is held in place by which of the following types of suture?

Purse-string

19
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Which catheter is most commonly used to perform an embolectomy?

Fogarty

20
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A resectoscope is used in what prostatic approach?

Transurethral

21
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Which retractor is preferred for a groin incision?

Weitlaner

22
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What type of dressing is applied as a nonadherent dressing?

Adaptic

23
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During an excisional biopsy of sentinel nodes, the surgical technologist should prepare specimens using which method?

Placed in separate containers and identify

24
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Immediately before a hemorrhoidectomy, which procedure might be performed on the patient in the operating room?

Sigmoidectomy

25
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When a break in antisecptic technique occurs, the surgical technologist in the scrub role should first notify the:

Contaminating team member

26
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Sponges that have been added to the sterile field after a procedure has begun should be counted by the:

Surgical technologist in the scrub role and the circulator

27
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What is a procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck?

Rhytidectomy

28
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Which rongeur is used to expand the antrostomy in a Caldwell-Luc procedure?

Kerrison

29
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Which procedure is used to visualize the cystic, hepatic, and common ducts?

Cholangiography

30
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Once the spinous process is exposed during a laminectomy, the next instrument needed for the removal of the lamina is a:

Kerrison rongeur

31
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What should the surgical technologist in the scrub role do during a cardiac emergency?

Remain sterile and keep the table sterile

32
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What is used to stabilize a fractured finger?

Kirschner wires

33
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During the application of arch bars, the surgeon will most likely use what between the teeth and around the bar?

25-gauge or 26-gauge stainless steel wire

34
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Which solution is used to identify diseased areas for a cold conization of the cervix?

Lugol's

35
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When using power saws on bone, what action best helps prevent bone damage?

Irrigation

36
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Which retractor is used in a C-section?

De Lee

37
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A nasogastric tube (NG) is used to:

Drain the stomach

38
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Which procedure requires an incision in the suprasternal nothc?

Mediastinoscopy

39
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The surgical technologist in the scrub role must keep track of blood loss as well as:

Track amount of irrigation used

40
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Following an abdominal surgery, the surgeon has just closed the peritoneum. Which layer will be sutured next?

Fascia

41
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Which medication is the anesthesia provider responsible for recording the name, amount, and delivery method during a surgical procedure?

Propofol

42
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A surgeon is preparing to close the abdomen of an average weight patient. Which closing supplies should the surgical technologist have ready for closing the fascial layer?

2-0 suture and toothed tissue forceps

43
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While preparing a sterile field, a surgical technologist secures the Bovie holster to the Mayo stand. The surgeon insists on keeping the Bovie by him toward the head of the patient. What would be the best course of action?

Move Bovie holster up by the head of the patient

44
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A surgeon is performing a procedure to repair damage from a gunshot wound to the chest. Which type of drain should the surgical technologist have available at the end of the procedure?

Underwater

45
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A liver laceration is identified during an emergency exploratory laparotomy. A surgical technologist will prepare suture attached to which of the following type of needles?

Blunt

46
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A Stamey needle is used for which type of surgery?

Bladder suspension

47
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What advantage do hand-held retractors have over self-retaining retractors?

Dynamic adjustability

48
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If unexpected heavy blood loss occurs during an abdominal procedure, a surgical technologist should request additional:

Lap sponges

49
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What is most commonly used for wound closure in the presence of infection?

Stainless steel

50
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A surgeon asks for warm irrigation after a GI tract reastomosis. What best describes the reason for irrigation at this point in the procedure?

To aid visual inspection for leakage

51
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In comparison to oral Fahrenheit temperatures, rectal Fahrenheit temperatures are

Approximately 1 degree higher

52
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What is the unexpected occurrence that involves physiologic or psychologic injury or death?

Sentinel event

53
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Following a surgical procedure, what is the best sequence of actions for a surgical technologist to take?

Remove sterile drapes, remove gown and gloves, and don a pair of unsterile gloves to aid in the care of the postoperative patient

54
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To prevent contamination at the end of a surgical procedure, what should be removed last by the surgical technologist in the scrub role?

Surgical drapes

55
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An RN has just asked a surgical technologist to complete a task that is within the surgical technologist's scope of practice, but the surgical technologist does not feel comfortable completing the task independently. What is the surgical technologist's best course of action?

Request that the RN provides the appropriate level of supervision during the task to ensure safety

56
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What is necessary for ethylene oxide sterilization to occur?

Humidity

57
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The destruction of organisms in an autoclave is accomplished by the:

Coagulation of cell protein

58
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Ratcheted instruments should be:

Opened for washing and sterilizing

59
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An effective packaging material used for a Balfour to be steam sterilized:

Permits penetration by the sterilant

60
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While removing peel pack instruments from the sterilizer, a surgical technologist notices several of the packages have ruptured. What would most likely be the cause of this?

The air was not evacuated from the pouch

61
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Which layer is transected when a subcostal flank incision is used from a nephrectomy?

Oblique muscles

62
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In order to remove a portion of the kidney, the surgeon must enter what?

Gerota's fascia

63
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What lies between the lung and the chest wall?

pleura

64
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Where is the gastrocnemius muscle located?

Calf

65
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What is the most serious complication of a strangulated hernia?

Necrosis

66
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During a herniaorraphy, the abdominal area that is bound by the rectus abdominis muscle, the inguinal ligament, and the inferior epigastric vessels is the:

Hesselbach triangle

67
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Scoliosis is most commonly found in which curve of the vertebral column?

Thoracic

68
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When performing a Shirodkar procedure, where is the attention being focused?

Cervix

69
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A patient entering the operating room for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy looks jaundiced. What is the best explanation for this?

Biliary obstruction

70
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Which surgical procedure may be used to remove a carcinoma from the head of the pancreas?

Whipple

71
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A scleral buckle procedure repairs:

Detached retinas

72
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Which procedure treats a congenital obstructed lesion found at the distal end of an infant's stomach?

Pyloromyotomy

73
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What is the surgical correction of a Colles' fracture?

The distal radius is fractured and the periosteum will be closed with absorbable sutures

74
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What surgery is a Meckel's diverticulum typically discovered?

Appendectomy

75
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Which structure is behind and below the base of the penis?

Scrotum

76
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When performing a right hemicolectomy, the surgeon will most likely remove portions of what?

Ascending and transverse colon

77
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What destroys bacterial spores?

Sterilant

78
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A patient who is HIV-positive is having an abdominal procedure. Another patient who is HIV-negative is having an orthopedic procedure. During and subsequent to the cases, the surgical technologist should take:

Standard precautions for both patients

79
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Which wound class is assigned to a bowel case in which the resident perforated during the procedure?

III

80
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What is an example of a wound in the inflammatory phase of wound healing?

An abdominal incision, 20 minutes post-closure

81
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What is the desired effect of atropine sulfate when used as a preoperative medication?

Drying of secretions

82
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Which condition is triggered by an injection of succinylcholine (Anectine) and causes an unusually high fever?

Malignant hyperthermia

83
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The primary purpose of a local anesthetic is to:

Block peripheral nerve receptors

84
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How is propofol (Diprivan) administered?

Intravenously

85
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A physician prescribed 50 mg of Demerol. The Demerol is supplied in 100 mg/mL. How many mL of Demerol should be given?

0.5 mL

86
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A patient presented in the OR without family history related to anesthesia complications. Which complication is of most concern related to the lack of family history?

Malignant hyperthermia

87
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The primary consideration in selecting an appropriate anesthetic agent is the:

Physiologic condition of the patient

88
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Which anticoagulant should be given during a vascular procedure to prevent normal blood clotting?

Heparin sodium

89
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A form of contrast media used within the body that is visible when exposed to x-ray is:

Radiopaque

90
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A sterile item used with an electrosurgical unit is the:

Active electrode

91
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What is the correct skin preparation for a female patient undergoing a right mastectomy with possible axillary dissection?

Shoulder, upper arm and extending down to the elbow, axilla, chest to the table line, and to the left shoulder

92
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When donning gloves using the open-gloving technique, the ungloved hand will touch the:

Folded edge of the cuff of the glove

93
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A pneumatic tourniquet may be used for surgery for:

Reduce blood loss

94
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A device used to measure fluid pressure is known as a:

Manometer

95
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An instrument used for measuring the air capacity of lungs is known as:

Spirometer

96
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A monitoring device that measures and numerically displays the concentration of carbon dioxide in exhaled air is called:

Capnometer

97
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What can be used to remove clots and tissue from the bladder during transurethral resections (TURPs)?

Ellik elevator

98
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Which position should a patient be placed for a low anterior colon resection?

Lithotomy

99
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The position in which one lies flat with the chest down and back up is known as the:

Prone position

100
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In which position would a person be if lying on their back?

Supine