CATEGORIES

Uncomplicated UTI

What category of urinary tract infection refers to an infection confined to the bladder in a woman or man without a urinary catheter?

Complicated UTI

What category of urinary tract infection extends beyond the bladder, including pyelonephritis, prostatitis, bacteremia, or catheter-associated infection?

Recurrent UTI

What category of UTI consists of repeated individual infection episodes that can each be uncomplicated or complicated?

Catheter-associated UTI

What type of complicated urinary tract infection occurs in the setting of intermittent or indwelling urinary catheterization?

Symptomatic UTI

What classification of UTI is defined by true symptomatic disease requiring antimicrobial treatment?

Asymptomatic bacteriuria

What condition is defined as the presence of bacteria in urine without accompanying local or systemic urinary symptoms?

Acute cystitis

What is the most common clinical manifestation and type of urinary tract infection in adult women?

Escherichia coli

What is the most common uropathogen accounting for 75% to 90% of acute uncomplicated cystitis cases?

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

What Gram-positive uropathogen causes 5% to 15% of acute cystitis cases, isolated most frequently from younger women?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What opportunistic pathogen is a common cause of catheter-associated UTIs and complicated urinary infections?

Proteus species

What urease-producing uropathogen is a frequent cause of complicated UTIs and staghorn renal calculus formation?

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, and pivmecillinam

What four oral agents are categorized as preferred first-line options for acute uncomplicated cystitis?

Pivmecillinam

What oral beta-lactam agent approved by the FDA in 2024 is a preferred option for acute uncomplicated cystitis active against MDR E. coli?

Nitrofurantoin

What preferred oral cystitis drug is intrinsically inactive against Proteus, Providencia, Morganella, and Pseudomonas species?

Fosfomycin

What preferred single-dose oral drug concentrates selectively in urine with low collateral damage and retains activity against MDR E. coli?

Fluoroquinolones and beta-lactams

What two drug classes are categorized as alternative second-line agents for acute uncomplicated cystitis?

Beta-lactams

What alternative drug class for cystitis requires 5 to 7 days of therapy and exhibits higher failure rates due to inability to eradicate vaginal reservoirs?

Fluoroquinolones

What highly effective antibiotic class causes severe collateral damage and collagen pathology, leading the FDA to advise against routine use in uncomplicated cystitis?

Aminopenicillins and cephalosporins

What drug classes are the antimicrobials of choice for treating asymptomatic bacteriuria or UTI in pregnant women?

Ampicillin and amoxicillin

What aminopenicillin drugs cannot be used empirically for UTI in pregnancy without culture results due to widespread E. coli resistance?

Sulfonamides

What drug class should be avoided in pregnancy during the first trimester due to teratogenicity and near term due to risk of neonatal kernicterus?

Fluoroquinolones

What drug class is avoided throughout pregnancy due to potential adverse effects on fetal cartilage development?

IV beta-lactams

What parenteral drug class is recommended as preferred empirical therapy for hospitalized patients with pyelonephritis?

Fluoroquinolones or TMP-SMX

What drug classes are preferred over beta-lactams in male UTI with suspected prostatic involvement due to superior tissue penetration?

Acute bacterial prostatitis

What category of prostatitis presents with acute urinary symptoms accompanied by systemic illness and fever?

Chronic bacterial prostatitis

What category of prostatitis should be suspected in men presenting with recurrent UTIs outside the setting of catheterization?

3 days

What is the recommended treatment duration for acute uncomplicated cystitis in women using TMP-SMX or fluoroquinolones?

5 to 7 days

What is the recommended treatment duration for acute uncomplicated cystitis in women using nitrofurantoin or pivmecillinam?

7 days

What is the minimum recommended treatment duration for uncomplicated cystitis in afebrile men?

14 days

What duration of antibiotic therapy for afebrile male UTI was demonstrated as noninferior in recent clinical trials?

2 to 4 weeks

What is the recommended antimicrobial treatment duration for acute bacterial prostatitis?

4 to 6 weeks

What is the typical treatment duration for chronic bacterial prostatitis, extending up to 12 weeks for recurrences?

Collateral damage

What term defines the adverse ecological effects of antimicrobial therapy, including killing normal flora and selecting resistant organisms?

Nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, and pivmecillinam

What three cystitis drugs produce the least collateral damage on fecal flora?

Fluoroquinolones, TMP-SMX, and late-generation cephalosporins

What antibiotic classes cause the most collateral damage on gut flora?

Neonatal period

What demographic age group exhibits a slightly higher incidence of UTI in males than females due to congenital anomalies?

Healthy young adult women

What demographic population accounts for the vast majority of acute uncomplicated cystitis cases and UTI clinical trials?

Women between 20 and 40 years of age

What demographic group has a 5% baseline prevalence of asymptomatic bacteriuria?

Elderly women and men

What demographic population exhibits a high prevalence of asymptomatic bacteriuria ranging from 40% to 50%?

Men over 50 years of age

What demographic group experiences an increased UTI incidence matching that of women due to prostatic hypertrophy?

80%

What percentage of women develop at least one urinary tract infection during their lifetime?

14%

What is the estimated lifetime prevalence of urinary tract infection among men in the United States?

Asymptomatic bacteriuria

What urinary condition should NOT be treated with antibiotics in non-pregnant patients without planned invasive urologic procedures?

Screening and treatment of ASB

What medical management is mandatory in pregnant patients and patients undergoing invasive urologic procedures?

Phenazopyridine

What urinary tract analgesic agent provides local dysuria relief but frequently causes significant nausea?

Methenamine hippurate

What non-antimicrobial antiseptic agent converted to formaldehyde in urine reduces recurrent UTIs similarly to antibiotic prophylaxis?

Continuous, postcoital, and patient-initiated

What are the three established antimicrobial prophylactic strategies for recurrent UTIs?

Native testosterone

What endogenous androgen is ineffective as an oral replacement drug due to rapid hepatic first-pass metabolism?

Schedule III

What DEA controlled substance classification applies to all FDA-approved testosterone, methyltestosterone, and oxandrolone products?

Testosterone esters, transdermal gels, transdermal patches, and 17-alpha-alkylated androgens

What are the main pharmaceutical categories of androgen preparations used in clinical practice?

Testosterone enanthate and testosterone cypionate

What long-acting ester formulations in oil are administered as deep intramuscular injections every 1 to 2 weeks?

Testosterone undecanoate injection

What long-acting intramuscular ester formulation is administered every 10 weeks and requires a 30-minute post-injection observation period?

Pulmonary microembolism and anaphylaxis

What two severe post-injection reactions mandate a 30-minute observation period after testosterone undecanoate administration?

Oral testosterone undecanoate

What lipophilic testosterone ester formulation is absorbed through lymphatic pathways when taken 2 to 3 times daily with food?

Transdermal testosterone gels

What topical androgen formulation produces relatively constant serum testosterone concentrations with daily application?

Transdermal testosterone patch

What topical androgen preparation changed once daily is associated with a high rate of localized skin rash?

17-alpha-alkylated androgens

What oral synthetic androgen category includes methyltestosterone, oxandrolone, stanozolol, fluoxymesterone, and danazol?

Hepatotoxicity

What major organ toxicity is caused by 17-alpha-alkylated androgens but not by native testosterone replacement?

Cholestasis, peliosis hepatis, and hepatocellular carcinoma

What three specific liver pathologies are associated with 17-alpha-alkylated androgen therapy?

Male hypogonadism

What is the primary best-established clinical indication for testosterone replacement therapy?

Classical hypogonadism

What type of hypogonadism resulting from structural pituitary or testicular disease is the only FDA-approved indication for testosterone products?

Idiopathic or age-related hypogonadism

What type of hypogonadism is explicitly excluded from FDA approval for testosterone replacement due to cardiovascular concerns?

Erythrocytosis

What most common dose-dependent hematologic adverse effect occurs during high-dose testosterone replacement?

Gynecomastia

What adverse effect occurs when excessive exogenous testosterone is aromatized to estradiol in peripheral tissues?

Non-aromatizable androgens

What type of modified androgens, such as dihydrotestosterone, do not cause gynecomastia even at high doses?

Danazol

What 17-alpha-alkylated synthetic androgen is indicated for angioedema prophylaxis, endometriosis, and fibrocystic breast disease?

Erythropoietin

What recombinant hormone growth factor has supplanted the historical use of androgens for treating anemias?

Tetrahydrogestrinone

What designer anabolic steroid was synthesized with a novel structure to evade anti-doping detection in athletes?

GnRH analogues

What class of androgen deprivation drugs downregulates pituitary GnRH receptors to suppress LH and testosterone secretion?

Leuprolide, goserelin, triptorelin, and histrelin

What four GnRH agonist analogues are indicated for parenteral androgen suppression in metastatic prostate cancer?

Initial gonadotropin flare

What transient hormonal phase occurs during early GnRH agonist therapy before receptor downregulation takes effect?

Nonsteroidal androgen receptor antagonists

What drug class includes flutamide, bicalutamide, nilutamide, enzalutamide, apalutamide, and darolutamide?

Adjuvant therapy with GnRH analogues

What is the primary clinical setting for using nonsteroidal androgen receptor antagonists in metastatic prostate cancer?

Flutamide

What nonsteroidal antiandrogen antagonist carries a risk of severe hepatotoxicity and should be used with caution when prescribed off-label for female hirsutism?

Enzalutamide

What second-generation androgen receptor antagonist blocks AR nuclear translocation and DNA binding without intrinsic agonist activity?

5-alpha-reductase inhibitors

What drug class includes finasteride and dutasteride that block conversion of testosterone to DHT?

Finasteride

What 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor selectively inhibits type II 5-alpha-reductase to treat BPH and male pattern baldness?

Dutasteride

What dual 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor blocks both type I and type II isoforms to shrink prostatic volume in BPH?

Lower urinary tract symptoms due to BPH

What is the primary clinical indication for 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors?

Impotence and gynecomastia

What two documented infrequent side effects occur with 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor therapy?

Ketoconazole

What imidazole antifungal drug inhibits cytochrome P450 steroidogenic enzymes to block testosterone and cortisol production?

PDE5 inhibitors

What drug category includes sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil, and avanafil used for erectile dysfunction?

Organic nitrate vasodilators

What drug class is absolutely contraindicated with PDE5 inhibitors due to severe life-threatening hypotension?

Tadalafil

What PDE5 inhibitor has an extended half-life permitting once-daily dosing for both erectile dysfunction and lower urinary tract symptoms of BPH?

Sildenafil

What PDE5 inhibitor causes a transient blue-green visual tinting side effect due to mild inhibition of retinal PDE6?

Priapism

What urologic emergency condition is defined as an erection lasting longer than 4 hours following PDE5 inhibitor use?

Anterior segment drugs

What category of ocular medications targets structures like the cornea, anterior chamber, iris, and ciliary body?

Posterior segment drugs

What category of ocular medications targets retina, optic nerve, vitreous, and choroidal structures?

Topical eye drops

What is the most common, convenient, and economical route of ocular drug administration?

Nasolacrimal duct absorption

What administration route mechanism leads to systemic side effects from topical eye drops by draining into vascular nasal mucosa?

Subconjunctival, sub-Tenon, peribulbar, and retrobulbar injections

What periocular injection categories deliver drugs to anterior and posterior ocular tissues?

Ester prodrugs

What chemical category of ocular drugs, exemplified by latanoprost, undergoes enzymatic hydrolysis by corneal esterases into active free acids?

Prostaglandin analogues

What drug class is considered the first-line medical therapy of choice for primary open-angle glaucoma?

Latanoprost, travoprost, bimatoprost, tafluprost, and latanoprostene bunod

What five prostaglandin FP receptor agonists are used topically for glaucoma?

Increased uveoscleral outflow

What is the primary mechanism of action by which prostaglandin analogues lower intraocular pressure?

Latanoprost

What is the most widely prescribed ocular hypotensive drug in glaucoma therapy?

Permanent increase in iris pigmentation, eyelash growth, and orbital fat atrophy

What three characteristic localized side effects are associated with topical prostaglandin analogue use?

Tafluprost

What topical prostaglandin analogue formulation is supplied as preservative-free single-dose droperettes?

Latanoprostene bunod

What dual-action prostaglandin drug donates nitric oxide to relax trabecular meshwork cells while enhancing uveoscleral outflow?

Beta-adrenergic antagonists

What drug class includes timolol, levobunolol, carteolol, and betaxolol used to decrease aqueous humor production?