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121 Terms

1
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Minimally Invasive Dentistry (MID)

supports a systematic respect for the original tissue, including diagnosis, risk assessment, preventative treatment, and minimal tissue removal upon restoration

2
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fluoride therapy is effective on ______ lesions on ______ tooth surfaces

non-cavitated incipient (white spot), smooth

-Patient can eat and drink after application → “Dry to apply, wet to set”

3
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T/F: patient can eat and drink after fluoride varnish application

True

4
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T/F: fluoride varnish is "dry to apply, wet to set"

true

5
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once applied, sealants protect against ______% of cavities for 2 years and continue to protect against ______% of cavities for up to 4 years

80, 50

6
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children aged 6-11 y/o without sealants have almost ______x more first molar cavities than children with sealants

3

7
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sealants are effective in preventing tooth decay on ______ surfaces

pit and fissure

8
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T/F: placing sealants over incipient pit and fissure caries can lead to arrest

true

9
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resin infiltration is for ______ ______ caries

non-cavitated, interproximal

10
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non-cavitated areas of the teeth

in the enamel (has not yet reached DEJ)

11
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silver diamine fluoride has a ~______% caries lesion arrest after a single application

79%

12
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interim therapeutic restoration (ITR)

incomplete removal of tooth decay (no handpiece) and glass ionomer placement

13
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when can ITR be used?

on asymptomatic teeth located 2mm or more from pulpal tissue

14
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does glass ionomer need to be completely dry?

No

15
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does glass ionomer mechanically or chemically bind?

Chemically

16
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does glass ionomer release fluoride?

Yes

17
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are hygenists able to perform ITR?

Yes

18
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what technique can be used for interproximal cavitated lesions?

hall technique

19
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hall technique

fill the crown with glass ionomer cement and smush it on top (cavity and all)

20
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does the hall technique require tooth preparation (drilling) and anesthesia?

No

21
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generally, ITR should be replaced with a more dfinitive restoration within ______ months

6

22
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who can sign treatment consent for a child in foster care?

biological parents or supervising agency (Not foster parents)

23
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what is WIC (women, infants, and children)?

a supplemental nutrition program for pregnant/postpartum women, infants, and children up to age 5

24
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what is the age range for adolescents?

early adolescence age range?

Adolescence: 10-25 y/o

Early adolescence: 10-12 y/o

25
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when is urgent and emergent care appropriate during pregnancy?

At any point

26
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expecting mother positioning

on left side or elevate the right hip with a pillow

27
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when is the ideal window for elective restoration and peridontal therapy for expecting mothers?

Second trimester

28
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what common oral health finding is significantly more apparent in pregnant women compared to other populations?

Gingivitis

29
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in rural populations is there a disproportionate burden of motor vehicle accidents, depression, binge drinking, suicide, and etc?

Yes

30
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T/F: life expectancy among rural populations is lower than their urban counterparts

True

31
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what tooth brushing method is recommended following periodontal surgery or for patients with areas of gingival recession?

charter's method (circular motion w/ bristles facing down)

32
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what are expressions of oral symptoms for non-communicative patients? (there are 9)

1. refusal to eat
2. increased drooling
3. constant pulling at the face
4. leaving dentures out of the mouth
5. increased restlessness
6. moaning or shouting
7. disturbed sleep
8. refusal to cooperate with daily care
9. aggression towards caregivers

33
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what are the 3 sides of the iron triangle?

quantity, quality, and cost

34
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a person is protected under the ADA (Americans with disabilities act) if they...

currently have, have a history or record, or are perceived by others to have an impairment

35
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a developmental disability is an impairment of physical and/or mental abilities that are menifested before the age of ______

22

36
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CODA (commission on dental accredidation) requires graduates to be competent in ______ the treatment needs of patients with special healthcare needs

assessing

37
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what is the major cause of oral cavity cancer?

tobacco use

38
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what are the 5 A's of tobacco cessation?

1. ASK about tobacco use and secondhand smoke exposure
2. ADVISE to quit
3. ASSESS interest in quitting
4. ASSIST in quit attempt (referral/pharmacotherapy)
5. ARRANGE for a follow-up

39
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T/F: combination nicotine replacement therapy is more effective than single therapy

True

40
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is leukoplakia (red) or erythroplakia (white) more likely to be malignant?

erythroplakia

41
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oropharynx cancer is related to ______

HPV (16)

42
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what is the correct angulation for manual toothbrushing?

45 degrees

43
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what is the correct angulation for electric toothbrushing? should you scrub?

90 degrees, no

44
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when you brush your teeth for less than 2 min you remove only ______% of plaque

40

45
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why are older patients harder to diagnose?

they don't complain much due to homeostasis (they adapt) and receding nerve endings (less pain)

46
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T (tumor) staging

measures both diameter and depth of invasion

47
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N (nodes) staging

measures spread to regional lymph nodes

48
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M (metastasis) staging

spread to different organs (ex. lungs)

49
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what are the main categories of the social determinants of health (SDOH)? (there are 6)

1. economic stability
2. neighborhood and physical envi
3. education
4. food
5. community and social context
6. health care system

50
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__ has assigned meaning while ____ and ______ have intrinsic meaning

-race (assigned)

-culture and ethnicity (intrinsic)

51
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IPEC competencies (there are 4)

1. values and ethics
2. roles and responsibilities
3. communication
4. teams and teamwork

52
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best practice for fluoride is ______ frequency and ______ dose

high frequency, low dose

53
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what is the halo effect?

when a fluoridated community has a positive impact on a neighboring non-fluoridated community

54
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what is the quadruple aim of the iron triangle?

enhancing provider well-being

55
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4 barriers to care for pregnant patients

1. over-treatment
2. health literacy
3. fragmented care
4. poor coordination

56
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6 functional limitations of disabilities

1. communication
2. learning
3. mobility
4. self-care
5. independent living
6. employment

57
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autism is a ______ disability

Behavioral

58
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4 miscopceptions of pts with disabilities

1. unmanageable
2. unsafe to treat
3. require OR/anesthesia
4. disruptive to practice

59
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3 barriers to healthcare for pts w disabilities

1. communication
2. lack of physical accessibility
3. transportation

60
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What were the bottom 3 pre-test priorities from the North Oralington exercise for the class of 2026?

8. # of other dental providers
9. school system/fam related obligations
10. available leisure/cultural activities

61
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What were the top 3 post-test priorities from the North Oralington exercise for the class of 2026?

1. type of community
2. # of other dental providers
3. underserved pt pop

62
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What were the bottom 3 post-test priorities from the North Oralington exercise for the class of 2026?

8. loan repayment
9. school system/fam related obligations
10. serve/live within own cultural community

63
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What ratio of women of reproductive age have untreated tooth decay?

1/4

64
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What were the top 3 pre-test priorities from the North Oralington exercise for the class of 2026?

1. prox to fam
2. underserved pt pop
3. competitive salary opportunities

65
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community water fluoridation reduces tooth decay by about ______% in both children and adults`

25

66
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CWF conc. is ______ppm (Fluoride level)

0.7 ppm

67
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currently, fluoride varnish has ______ ppm F (highly conc 5% sodium fluoride)

28,000

68
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dental sealants prevent ______% of cavities in the molars where 9/10 cavities occur

80

69
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adults should consume ______ cups of fruit daily

1.5-2

70
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adults should consume ______ cups of vegetables daily

2-3

71
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adults should consume ______ g/kg/day of protein daily

0.8

72
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adults should consume >______ g/day of carbs/starchy vegetables (min brain function)

130

73
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__ is a treatable, chronic medical disease

Addiction

74
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______ is a synthetic opioid that is a game changer for opioid overdoses in the last few years

Fentanyl

75
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__ mg of fentanyl is a lethal dose

2 mg

76
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what is the #1 drug of abuse

alcohol

77
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symptom of opioid use

Pinpoint pupils

78
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symptom of amphetamine use

Dilated pupils

79
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NHANES

National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey

80
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BRFSS

Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System

81
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__ helps people within the existing system

Agency

82
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_ seeks system change

Activism

83
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awareness and appreciation of difference

Diversity

84
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skill development for work across cultural lines

cultural competency

85
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examines systems and how they impact individuals (looks at access to resources, power, and privilege and is hopeful)

Social justice

86
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differential access to the goods, services, and opportunities of society by race

institutionalized racism

87
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acceptance by members of the stigmatized races of negative messages about their own abilities and intrinsic worth

Internalized racism

88
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prejudice and discrimination

personally mediated racism

89
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is implicit (unconcious) bias normal?

Yes

90
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does implicit bias help us organize complex info?

Yes

91
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the problem with ______ is not that they are untrue, but that they are incomplete. they make one story become the only story

Stereotypes

92
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medicare part ______ is hospital insurance

A

93
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medicare part ______ is medical insurance

B

94
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medicare part ______ and ______ are called original medicare

A and B

95
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medicare part ______ is medicare advantage plans

C

96
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medicare part ______ is optional prescription drug benefit

D

97
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what does CHIP stand for?

children's health insurance program

98
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_____ supervision is when the dentist has examined the patient, authorized the procedure, and is physically present

Direct

99
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_ supervision is when the dentist must authorize procedure and be in the dental office

Indirect

100
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__ supervision is when the dentist needs to authorize prior to services, but need not be present

General